Comprehension

 READING COMPREHENSION
UNSEEN PASSAGES 1 CHAPTER
Syllabus
I. Multiple Choice questions are based on one unseen passage to assess comprehension, interpretation and
inference. Vocabulary and are inference of meaning will also be assessed. The passage may be factual,
descriptive or literary. Five questions to be done.
II. Multiple Choice questions are based on one unseen case-based factual passage with verbal/visual inputs
like statistical data, charts, newspaper report etc. Five questions to be done.
NOTE : The combined word limit for both the passages will be 700-750 words.
Learning Outcomes
 Develop the habit of reading for information and pleasure; draw inferences and relate texts to
previous knowledge.
 Read critically and develop the confidence to ask and answer questions.
 Read textual materials with interest and comprehension; by skimming and scanning of texts and
using other sub skills of reading.
 Differentiate between claims and realities, facts and opinions.
 Explore multimedia resources, QR codes (provided in textbooks) related to texts to supplement
their reading/understanding.
 Read expository, narrative, descriptive and argumentative accounts of writing.
 Develop interest and appreciation of the past; history, mythology etc.
 Read and think critically about issues related to environment and disaster management, gender,
peace etc.
 Read in detail about pandemic in past and present to share information related to medicine,
economics and commerce, and experiences of people.
 Promote conservation of natural resources through projects, assisting and collaborating with
NGOs etc.
Type I : Passages
I. Read the passage given below:
(1) “Who doesn’t know how to cook rice? Cooking rice hardly takes time,” said my father. So, I challenged myself.
I switched from news to You Tube and typed, “How to cook rice?” I took one and a half cups of rice. Since I didn’t have
access to a rice cooker, I put the rice in a big pot. Firstly, the rice has to be washed to get rid of dust and starch. I thought
I won’t be able to drain the rice and that it will fall out of the pot. I observed the chef as I swirled the rice around and

used my dexterous hands to drain it, not once, not twice, but three times. I looked down at the sink and saw less than
50 grains that made their way out of the pot. Suffice to say, I was up to the mark.
(2) The video stated that the key to perfect rice is equal amount of rice and water. I have heard that professionals
don’t need to measure everything; they just know what the right amount is. But as this was my first time in the kitchen,
I decided to experiment by not measuring the water needed for boiling the rice. I wanted the rice to be firm when bitten,
just like pasta. I don’t enjoy the texture of mushy rice. It has to have that chutzpah; it has to resist my biting power just
for a bit before disintegrating.
(3) After what seemed like 10 minutes, all the water disappeared. I went in to give it a good stir. To my surprise,
some of the rice got stuck to the pot. I tried to scrape it off but to no avail. At the same time, there was a burning smell
coming from it. I quickly turned the stove off. “What have you done to the kitchen?” My mother shouted while coming
towards the kitchen. I managed to ward her off.
(4) Finally, when the time came to taste my creation, I was surprised! It wasn’t bad at all. The rice had the desired
consistency. Sure, a little more salt would’ve been better, but I just added that while eating. The experience was fairly
rewarding and memorable. It taught me a new sense of respect for those who cook food on a regular basis at home or
are engaged in gourmet creations professionally. (SQP 2020-21)
Based on your understanding of the above passage, answer any eight of the questions given below by choosing the
most appropriate option: (1×8=8)
1. Father’s question to the narrator, about
knowing how to cook rice, was intended to
(A) criticize the narrator’s lack of abilities.
(B) make the process sound simple.
(C) encourage the narrator to take up
cooking.
(D) showcase his own expertise in cooking
rice.
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
2. “I switched from news to You Tube …”
Pick the option in which the meaning of
‘switch(ed)’ is NOT the same as it is in the
passage.
(A) He switched on the radio to listen to the
news while having dinner.
(B) “Forget these diet supplements and
switch to yoga, if you want a true sense
of well-being.”
(C) Mom switched to reading fiction recently
because she was bored with cook-books.
(D) The company will switch the trucks to
other routes to bring down city pollution.
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
3. Based on your understanding of the passage,
choose the option that lists the correct
sequence of the process.
1. Use water to wash the rice.
2. Repeat the process three times.
3. Drain the water off.
4. Put rice in a utensil.
5. Swirl the rice around in water.
(A) 4,2,1,3,5 (B) 1,3,2,5,4
(C) 4,1,5,3,2 (D) 5,1,2,4,3
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
4. The narrator says that he has dexterous
hands. He would have had a problem had it
been the opposite. NOT BEING dexterous
means, being _______________ .
(A) uncomfortable (B) clumsy
(C) unclear (D) clueless
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
5. Which option represents the correct ratio of
water to rice for cooking ‘perfect rice’?
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) Image 1 (B) Image 2
(C) Image 3 (D) Image 4
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
6. According to the passage, the fact that the
narrator risked experimentation, on his
maiden attempt in the kitchen, shows that
he was _______________ .
(A) conscientious (B) nervous
(C) presumptuous (D) courteous
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
7. Pick the option showing the CORRECT use
of the word ‘chutzpah’.
(A) It is the court’s duty to dispense chutzpah
to everyone irrespective of caste or creed.
(B) The speaker may not have much of a
stage presence, but you’ve got to admit
she’s got chutzpah.
(C) I could crack the code easily which
proved me to be a chutzpah and I was
the only one who could do so.
(D) After his father’s demise, the daughter
took over the family’s chutzpah to save
it from disaster.
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
8. Pick the option that correctly states what
DID NOT happen after the writer checked
on the rice.
(A) Turning the stove off
(B) Being taken aback at the condition of rice
(C) Forgetting to scrape the stuck rice
(D) Smelling the delicious aroma of cooked
rice
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
9. Pick the option that correctly lists the final
feelings of the writer with reference to the
cooking experience.
1. frustrating 2. amusing
3. satisfying 4. disillusioning
5. exacting 6. enlightening
(A) 1 and 4 (B) 2 and 5
(C) 3 and 6 (D) 1 and 3
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
10. The narrator’s creation was
(A) almost perfect to taste.
(B) way off from what he wanted.
(C) overly seasoned.
(D) quite distasteful.
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
II. Read the passage given below: [Delhi & Outside Delhi 2020, All sets (Modified)]
Donated Organs and their Transportation
(1) Once an organ donor’s family gives its consent and the organs are matched to a recipient, medical professionals
are faced with the onerous challenge of transporting organs while ensuring that the harvested organ reaches its
destination in the shortest possible time. This is done in order to preserve the harvested organs which involves the
police especially the traffic police department.
(2) The traditional method of transporting organs by road is referred to as a “green corridor”. The first green
corridor in India was created by Chennai Traffic Police in September 2008, when they accomplished their task of
enabling an ambulance to reach its destination within 11 minutes during peak hour traffic. That organ saved a nineyear-
old girl whose life depended on the transplant. Similarly, such green corridors have been created by traffic police
of various cities such as Pune, Mumbai, Delhi NCR etc.
(3) Experts point out the lack of a robust system to transport organs to super-speciality hospitals in least possible
time. National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organisation (NOTTO), the country’s apex organ donation agency, is now
framing a proposal to airlift cadaver organs and will send a report to the Union Health Ministry. “Cadaver organs have
a short life and so transplant should be done within a few golden hours.” Director (NOTTO) expressed, “Therefore, we
are preparing a proposal for airlifting organs at any given moment.”
(4) Most states do not have enough well-trained experts to retrieve or perform transplant procedures. Also, there
is an acute shortage of advanced healthcare facilities to carry out a transplant. So, it is referred to other big centres in
metropolitan cities. Organs retrieved from Aurangabad, Indore, Surat and Pune are sent to Mumbai as these cities do
not have super-speciality healthcare centres, informed officials.
(5) “In India, about fifty thousand to one lakh patients are suffering from acute heart failure and need heart
transplant at any point of time. In a private set-up, a heart transplant costs ` 15-20 lakhs, which is followed up by
postoperative medication of about ` 30,000 per month lifelong.” Moreover, the risk factor is great hindrance.
Based on your understanding of the above passage, answer any eight of the questions given below by choosing the
most appropriate option: (1×8=8)
1. The first green corridor in India was created
in:
(A) New Delhi (B) Chennai
(B) Mumbai (D) Pune
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
2. The onerous task that the author is talking
about in para 1 is :
(A) finding organ donors.
(B) finding doctors capable of performing
transplants.
(C) to carry the harvested organ in the
shortest possible time.
(D) to arrange the requisite facilities for the
transplant.
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
3. Most of the people do not go for the heart
transplant as:
(A) it is very risky.
(B) it is very painful.
(C) it may cause death of the recipient.
(D) the cost is prohibitive.
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
4. Most states refer organ transplant cases to
big hospitals because:
(A) they don’t have well trained experts.
(B) the patients don’t trust local doctors.
(C) the state hospitals are very crowded.
(D) they don’t have a pool of harvested
organs.
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
5. Apart from Chennai, where were other green
corridors created?
(A) Delhi NCR (B) Pune
(C) Mumbai (D) All of the above
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
6. How much does a heart transplant cost a
patient in a private hospital?
(A) Rs. 15-20 lakhs (B) Rs. 20 lakhs
(C) Rs. 20-25 lakhs (D) None of these
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
7. Pick out the word/phrase from the passage
which is similar in meaning to ‘save’ (Para 1)
(A) onerous (B) preserve
(C) harvest (D) retrieve
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
8. Pick out the word/phrase from the passage
which is opposite in meaning to ‘destructed’
(Para 2)
(A) accomplished (B) created
(C) transplanted (D) advanced
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
9. What is meant by the word ‘retrieve’ (Para 4)
(A) get back (B) recover
(C) set right (D) regain
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
10. What does the author mean by ‘a few golden
hours’?
(A) Time between patient’s admission in a
hospital and surgery.
(B) The crucial time available for transplant
of the organ after harvesting it.
(C) The time of 24 hours post operation.
(D) The time of two days before admission in
a hospital.
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
III. Read the passage given below:
(1) All of Earth’s oceans share one thing in common “plastic pollution”. When people litter, or when the trash
is not properly disposed off, things like plastic bags, bottles, straws, foam and beverage cups get carried to the sea by
winds and waterways. About 80 percent of ocean plastic originates on land. The rest comes from marine industries such
as shipping and fishing.
(2) In 2015, engineer Jenna Jambeck at the University of Georgia and other researchers calculated that at least
8 million tons of plastic trash are swept into the ocean from coasts every year. That’s the equivalent of a full garbage
truck of plastic being dumped into the sea every minute. If current trends in plastic production and disposal continue,
that figure will double by 2025. A report published by the World Economic Forum last year predicts that by 2050, ocean
plastic will outweigh all the fish in the sea.
(3) In today’s world, plastic is everywhere. It’s found in shoes, clothing, household items, electronics and more.
There are different types of plastics, but one thing they all have in common is that they’re made of polymers-large
molecules made up of repeating units. Their chemical structure gives them a lot of advantages: they’re cheap and easy
to manufacture, lightweight, water-resistant, durable and can be moulded into nearly any shape.
(4) Sea turtles eat plastic bags and soda-can rings, which resemble jellyfish, their favourite food. Seabirds eat
bottle caps or chunks of foam cups. Plastic pieces may make an animal feel full, so it doesn’t eat enough real food to get
the nutrients it needs. Plastic can also block an animal’s digestive system, making it unable to eat.
(5) Plastic and its associated pollutants can even make it into our own food supply. Scientists recently examined
fish and shellfish bought at markets in California and Indonesia. They found plastic in the guts of more than a quarter
of samples purchased at both locations; in organisms that people eat whole, such as sardines and oysters, that means
we’re eating plastic too. In larger fishes, chemicals from plastic may seep into their muscles and other tissues that people
consume.
(6) One way to keep the ocean cleaner and healthier is through clean-up efforts. A lot of plastic waste caught in
ocean currents eventually washes up on beaches. Removing it prevents it from blowing out to sea again. Beach clean-up
is ocean clean-up.
(7) Clean-up efforts can’t reach every corner of the ‘ocean or track down every bit of micro-plastic’. That means
it’s critical to cut down on the amount of plastic that reaches the sea in the first place. Scientists are working towards
new materials that are safer for the environment. For example, Jambeck and her colleagues are currently testing a new
polymer that breaks down more easily in seawater.
Based on your understanding of the above passage, answer any eight of the questions given below by choosing the
most appropriate option: (1×8=8)
1. Percentage of ocean plastic that originates
from land is __________.
(A) 20% (B) 50%
(C) 80% (D) 25%
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
2. Plastic is not biodegradable because it is
made up of __________.
(A) low atomic particles
(B) tiny particles
(C) strong big particles
(D) large molecule polymers
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
3. Scientists bought fish and shellfish for
examination at markets in __________.
(A) China and Russia
(B) Pakistan and Afghanistan
(C) California and Indonesia
(D) Australia and Brazil
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
4. Which properties make plastic great for
consumer goods?
(A) Biodegradability.
(B) Durability.
(C) The dyes and flame retardants.
(D) Ability of chemical absorption.
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
5. Which articles made of plastic generally
cause pollution in the sea?
(A) Discarded plastic bags.
(B) Beverage cups.
(C) Soda can-rings.
(D) All of these.
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
6. Which features do all kinds of plastic have?
(A) Easy to manufacture and easy to dispose.
(B) Water resistant.
(C) Difficult to mould into any shape.
(D) Non-durability.
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
7. What is the biggest impact of plastic pollution
on sea life?
(A) Plastic eating makes them feel full.
(B) Plastic blocks the animal’s digestive
system.
(C) Plastic cuts sea animal’s skin.
(D) All of these
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
8. How are larger fish affected by plastic?
(A) They can get entangled in plastic
netting.
(B) Plastic may lead them to starvation.
(C) Plastic is found in their guts.
(D) Plastic may go into their muscles and
other tissues.
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
9. What is the ultimate way to clean up an
ocean?
(A) The beach clean-up.
(B) Ban of plastic items.
(C) Prohibition of seabirds.
(D) No food supply in surrounding area.
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
10. Scientists are working towards new material
to replace plastics. Which material is being
looked for?
(A) Material that is safer for the
environment.
(B) Material that breaks down more easily in
seawater.
(C) Material that does not harm marine life.
(D) All of the above.
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
IV. Read the passage given below: [CBSE, 2019, Outside Delhi Set I, II, III]
(1) The sage of science, Einstein, was sitting in a depressive and pensive mood one evening. His eyes were
brimming with tears. The pain was evident on his face. He peeped out of the window of his room. The sun had set a
few minutes back. The sky was filled with a reddish glow. At this sunset, he felt that it was humanity that had sunk
into devilish darkness and the reddish glow in the sky was the blood of humanity spilling all over the sky from earth.
With tired steps, he walked back to his chair and settled down. It was the 9th of August, 1945. Three days back, he had
felt the same agony as if someone had torn him apart. He was deeply hurt and depressed when he heard on the radio
that America had dropped an atom bomb on the Japanese city, Hiroshima. Today, within three days, another bomb was
dropped on another city, Nagasaki and lakhs of people had been killed.
(2) He had heard that the blast released so much energy that it had paled all past destructions in comparison and
death had played out a pitiable dance of destruction. The flames that broke out of the bomb were burning, melting and
exploding buildings. Scared of the heat of the bomb, people had jumped into lakes and rivers, but the water was boiling
and the people too were burnt and killed. The animals in the water were already boiled to death. Animals, trees, herbs,
fragrant flowering plants were all turned into ashes. The atomic energy destruction had just not stopped there. It had
entered the atmosphere there and had spread radiation that would affect people for generations to come and would
also bring about destructive irreversible biological change in animals and plants.
(3) As the news of the atomic attack reached Einstein, and he became aware of the glaring horror of the abuse of
atomic energy, his distress and restlessness knew no bounds. He could not control himself and picked up his violin to
turn his mind on to other things. While playing the violin, he tried to dissolve his distress in its sad notes, but couldn’t.
He was burning on the embers of destruction; his heart was filled with an ocean of agony and tears just continued
streaming uncontrollably out of his eyes. Night had fallen. His daughter came up and asked him to eat something as he
had not taken anything for the last four days. His voice was restrained and he said, “I don’t feel like eating.”
(4) He could not sleep that night. Lying down, he was thinking how he had drawn the attention of the then
American President Roosevelt towards, the destructive powers of an atomic bomb. He had thought that this would be
used to scare Hitler and put an end to the barbarism that Hitler was up to. However, Roosevelt kept him in the dark
and made false promises. Eventually, he had abused Einstein’s equation of E= mc2 that resulted in the destructive
experiments. His actions had made science and scientists as murderers. Einstein kept on thinking for a long time.
Eventually, he slipped into sleep. When he woke up at dawn, there was a new dawn in him too. The atomic threat had
transformed his heart.
(5) The next day, he decided to disassociate himself from the scientific policy of the government and all
governmental institutions. He decided to open educational institutions for children, adolescents, and youth-institutions
where along with science, spirituality will be compulsorily taught.
(6) To inaugurate this institution, he had invited two great philosophers, Bertrand Russell and Albert Schweitzer.
Ten other great scientists who had won Nobel Prizes in different fields were also invited. They all saw a different
Einstein, not a great scientist but a sage in him. The institution was opened by garlanding a photo of Mahatma Gandhi.
While garlanding the Mahatma, he became emotional and said with a lump in his throat, ‘I bow down to the great man
who fought for the Independence of his country through non–violence. He could do so because he was a truthful man
and a true spiritualist’.
(7) Those who teach science should be taught spirituality too. Without harmony between science and spirituality,
the destruction would continue unabated. A few years after this institution was built, a Japanese delegation came to
meet him. Einstein broke down in the meeting and said, ‘You can give me any punishment and I will accept it. Anyway,
I have decided to lead my life in penitence’. The Japanese were moved by his sincerity and forgot their grief.
Based on your understanding of the above passage, answer any eight of the questions given below by choosing the
most appropriate option: (1×8=8)
1. Which musical instrument did Einstein play
when he was in grief?
(A) Harmonium (B) Guitar
(C) Violin (D) Flute
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
2. Einstein came to know that America had
dropped an atom bomb on the Japanese city,
Hiroshima through ______________.
(A) television
(B) newspaper
(C) radio
(D) a telephonic message
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
3. Einstein said to the Japanese delegation,
(A) ‘You can give me any punishment and I
will accept it.’
(B) ‘I am not at fault.’
(C) ‘What could I do?’
(D) ‘The President didn’t agree to my advice.’
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
4. What did Einstein do to show his displeasure
over the atomic attack?
(A) He decided to open a science laboratory.
(B) He decided to establish an Educational
Institution.
(C) He disassociated himself from
Governmental Institutions.
(D) He invited two great philosophers.
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
5. The depressive mood of Einstein was
compared to:
(A) Sunrise (B) Sunset
(C) Devilish darkness (D) Tired steps
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
6. What made Einstein restless and sleepless?
(A) When America was hit by atomic bomb.
(B) When Nagasaki was hit by atom bomb.
(C) When atom bomb was dropped on
Hiroshima by America.
(D) Both (B) and (C).
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
7. Pick out the event after which Einstein
could not control himself and tried to play
instrument to divert his mind.
(A) After getting the news of atomic attack.
(B) By inventing sad notes.
(C) Over barbarism of Hitler.
(D) When he was pained by false promises.
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
8. Which event in 1945, according to Einstein,
turned science and scientists into murderers?
(A) The wrong use of Einstein’s equation.
(B) False promises of Roosevelt.
(C) The dropping of atom bombs on the two
Japanese cities.
(D) None of these.
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
9. Einstein invited which philosopher to
inaugurate the new institution?
(A) Bertrand Russell
(B) Albert Schweitzer
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
10. Those who teach science should be taught
spirituality too. Why it is good to teach
spirituality with science?
(A) Spirituality will make science easier to
understand.
(B) Spirituality will help the scientists to
make deadly weapons.
(C) Spirituality will give more power to
scientists.
(D) Spirituality will enable scientists to use
science for the welfare of others.
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
V. Read the passage given below: [Modified 2018, Delhi & Outside Delhi]
(1) When you grow up in a place where it rains for five months a year, wise elders help you to get acquainted with
the rain early. They teach you that it is ignorance to think that it is the same rain falling every day. Oh no! the rain is
always doing different things at different times. There is rain that is gentle, and there is also rain that falls too hard and
damages the crops. Hence, pray for the sweet rain that helps the crops to grow.
(2) The monsoon in the Naga Hills goes by the native name, Khuthotei (which means the rice-growing season).
It lasts from May to early or mid-October. The local residents firmly believe that Durga Puja in October announces
the end to rain. After that, one might expect a couple of short winter showers, and the spring showers in March and
April. Finally, comes the ‘big rain’ in May; proper rainstorms accompanied by heart-stopping lightning and ear-splitting
thunder. I have stood out in storms looking at lightning arc across the dark skies, a light-and-sound show that can go
on for hours.
(3) This is the season when people use the word ‘sezuo’ and ‘suzu’ to refer to the week-long rains, when clothes
don’t dry and smell of mould, when fungus forms on the floor and you can’t see the moon or the stars.
(4) The rains are also called after flowering plants and people believe that the blossoming of those plants draws
out rain. Once the monsoon sets in, field work is carried out in earnest and the work of uprooting and transplanting
paddy in flooded fields is done. The months of hard labour are June, July and August. In August, as the phrogo plant
begins to bloom, a rain will fall. This August rain, also called phrogo, is a sign that the time for cultivation is over. If any
new grain seeds are sown, they may not sprout; even if they do sprout, they are not likely to bear grain. The rain acts
as a kind of farmer’s almanac.
(5) The urban population of school-goers and office-goers naturally dislikes the monsoon and its accompanying
problems of landslides, muddy, streets and periodic infections. For non-farmers, the month of September can be
depressing, when the rainfall is incessant and the awareness persists that the monsoons will last out till October. One
needs to have the heart of a farmer to remain grateful for the watery days, and be able to observe from what seems to
the inexperienced as a continuous downpour-many kinds of rain. Some of the commonly known rain-weeks are named
after the plants that alternately bloom in August and September. The native belief is that the flowers draw out the rain.
(6) Each rain period has a job to fulfil: October rain helps garlic bulbs to form, while kumunyo rain helps the rice
bear grain. Without it, the ears of rice cannot form properly. End of October is the most beautiful month in the Naga
Hills, as the fields turn gold and wild sunflowers bloom over the slopes, all heralding the harvest. Prayers go up for
protecting the fields from storms, and the rains to retreat because the grains need to stand in the sun and ripen. The
cycle nears completion a few weeks before the harvest, and the rain does retreat so thoroughly from the reaped furrows
that the earth quickly turns hard. The months of rain becomes a distant memory until it starts all over again.
Based on your understanding of the above passage, answer any eight of the questions given below by choosing the
most appropriate option: (1×8=8)
1. The rains are called after flowering plants
because:
(A) heavy rains kill plants.
(B) flowers grow in the rainy season.
(C) it is believed that the plants bring the
rain.
(D) flowers grow all the year round.
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
2. The rain is like a calendar for farmers
because:
(A) it tells them when to sow and when to
harvest.
(B) it tells them the birthdays of their
children.
(C) each month has a time for plantation.
(D) different kinds of rains tell different
things.
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
3. People who live in cities don’t like rain
because:
(A) it brings mud and sickness with it.
(B) they are not bothered about the farmers.
(C) they don’t like the plants that grow
during the rain.
(D) going shopping becomes difficult.
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
4. People pray asking the rain to retreat because:
(A) the fungus and mould need to dry.
(B) children don’t get a chance to play.
(C) the crops need the sun and heat to
ripen.
(D) they like to pray.
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
5. What do elders want you to understand
about rains?
(A) That rains are always welcomed.
(B) That the same rain falls every day.
(C) That the rain always damages the crops.
(D) That rain always does different things at
different times.
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
6. What helps the crops to grow?
(A) Gentle rain.
(B) Prayer for rain.
(C) Rain that falls too hard.
(D) Easy rain.
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
7. What does Durga Puja mean to the farmers of
the Naga hills?
(A) It is a holy festival for them.
(B) It announces the end of rain.
(C) They expect, thereafter, water showers.
(D) They look for light and sound show
during the festival.
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
8. What kind of rain is called ‘sezuo’ or ‘suzu’?
(A) Winter monsoon.
(B) Summer rains.
(C) Week long rain.
(D) Short winter shower.
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
9. When can one see sunflowers blooming all
over the Naga Hills?
(A) From May to October.
(B) In September-October.
(C) End of October.
(D) During the retreat of rain.
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
10. Pick up the option in which the word ‘furrow’
has not been used in the same way as in the
passage.
(A) When he frowns a deep furrow forms in
his brow.
(B) A ploughed field is divided into sections
of equal width separated by furrows.
(C) Rapidly reaping the furrows, he fled
across the field.
(D) The incessant rain filled all the furrows in
the field with water.
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
VI. Read the passage given below : [Delhi I, II, III / OD Set-I, 2018]
(1) Every morning Ravi gives his brain an extra boost. We’re not talking about drinking strong cups of coffee or
playing one of those mind-training video games advertised all over Facebook. ‘‘I jump onto my stationary bike and
cycle for 45 minutes to work,’’ says Ravi. ‘‘When I go to my desk, my brain is at peak activity for a few hours.’’ After his
mental focus comes to a halt later in the day, he starts it with another short spell of cycling to be able to run errands.
(2) Ride, work, ride, repeat. It’s a scientifically proven system that describes some unexpected benefits of cycling.
In a recent study in the Journal of Clinical and Diagnostic Research, scientists found that people scored higher on tests
of memory, reasoning, and planning after 30 minutes of spinning on a stationary bike than they did before they rode
the bike. They also completed the tests faster after pedalling.
(3) Exercise is like fertilizer for your brain. All those hours, spent on exercising your muscles, create rich capillary
beds not only in leg and hip muscles, but also in your brain. More blood vessels in your brain and muscles mean more
oxygen and nutrients to help them work. When you pedal, you also force more nerve cells to fire. The result : you
double or triple the production of these cells — literally building your brain. You also release neurotransmitters (the
messengers between your brain cells) so all those cells, new and old, can communicate with each other for better, faster
functioning. That’s a pretty profound benefit to cyclists.
(4) This kind of growth is especially important with each passing birthday, because as we age, our brains shrink
and those connections weaken. Exercise restores and protects the brain cells. Neuroscientists say, ‘‘Adults who exercise
display sharper memory skills, higher concentration levels, more fluid thinking, and greater problem-solving ability
than those who are sedentary.’’
(5) Cycling also elevates your mood, relieves anxiety, increases stress resistance, and even banishes the blues.
‘‘Exercise works in the same way as psychotherapy and antidepressants in the treatment of depression, maybe better,’’
says Dr. Manjari. A recent study analyzing 26 years of research finds that even some exercise — as little as 20 to 30
minutes a day — can prevent depression over the long term.
(6) Remember : although it’s healthy, exercise itself is a stress, especially when you’re just getting started or
getting back into riding. When you first begin to exert yourself, your body releases a particular hormone to raise your
heart rate, blood pressure, and blood glucose levels, says Meher Ahluwalia, PhD, a professor of integrative physiology.
As you get fitter, it takes a longer, harder ride to trigger that same response.
Based on your understanding of the above passage, answer any eight of the questions given below by choosing the
most appropriate option: (1×8=8)
1. When nerve cells work during exercise then
______________.
(A) the body experiences stress.
(B) the brain is strengthened by multiplying
them.
(C) you start to lose your temper.
(D) your stationary cycle starts to beep.
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
2. What are the unexpected benefits of cycling?
(A) Sharpens the memory.
(B) improves reasoning.
(C) improves planning skills.
(D) all of these.
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
3. The more one pedals, more is ______________.
(A) production of nerve cells
(B) the release of neurotransmitters
(C) both (A) and (B)
(D) neither (A) nor (B)
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
4. Why does Ravi do a circuit of ‘ride’, work,
ride?
(A) because he wants to stay focused.
(B) because after cycling to work, his brain is
at the peak of activity level.
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
5. What is the work of neurotransmitters?
(A) They are like messengers between your
brain cells.
(B) With the help of neurotransmitters, cells
can communicate with each other.
(C) It makes the functioning better and faster.
(D) All of these.
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
6. Why is exercise so important for adults?
Adults who exercise
Have sharp memory skills
Higher
concentration
levels
Greater problem
solving abilities
More fluid thinking
1
2
3
4
(A) Only 1 and 4 (B) 1, 2 and 3 (C) Only 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
7. Based on the understanding of the passage,
choose the option that lists the correct
sequence of ‘How is exercise itself a stress?’
1. The body releases a particular hormone.
2. As one gets fitter, it takes a longer and
more rigorous exercising to trigger the
same response.
3. As soon as one states exercising, the body
reacts immediately.
4. That hormone raises one’s heart rate,
blood pressure and blood glucose levels.
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 (B) 1, 3, 4, 2
(C) 3, 1, 4, 2 (D) 4, 3, 2, 1
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
8. Find word from the passage which means
the same as (the following) inactive : (Para 4)
(A) passing (B) sedentary
(C) shrink (D) weaken
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
9. Find word/phrase from the passage which
means the opposite of ‘abstain’ from
functioning : (Para 6)
(A) stress (B) back into riding
(C) exert (D) trigger
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
10. ‘Banishing the blues’ is an idiom. Pick up the
blue colour idiom which is NOT CORRECT.
(A) Bolt from the blue
(B) Once in a blue moon.
(C) Caught blue-handed.
(D) Out of the blue.
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
VII. Read the passage given below :
[Delhi Set I/II/III, Outside Delhi Set I/II/III, Foreign Set I/II/III 2017]
(1) We sit in the last row, bumped about but free of stares. The bus rolls out of the dull crossroads of the city, and
we are soon in open countryside with fields of sunflowers as far as the eye can see, their heads all facing us. Where there
is no water, the land reverts to desert. While still on level ground, we see in the distance the tall range of the Mount
Bogda, abrupt like a shining prism laid horizontally on the desert surface. It is over 5,000 metres high, and the peak
is under permanent snow, in powerful contrast to the flat desert all around. Heaven Lake lies part of the way up this
range, about 2,000 metres above sea level, at the foot of one of the highest snow-peaks.
(2) As the bus climbs, the sky, brilliant before, grows overcast. I have brought nothing warm to wear. It is all down
at the hotel in Urumqi. Rain begins to fall. The man behind me is eating overpoweringly smelly goat’s cheese. The bus
window leaks inhospitably, but reveals a beautiful view. We have passed quickly from desert through arable land to
pasture and the ground is now green with grass, the slopes dark with pine. A few cattle drink at a clear stream flowing
past moss-covered stones; it is a constable landscape. The stream changes into a white torrent, and as we climb higher, I
wish more and more that I had brought with me something warmer than just the pair of shorts that have served me so
well in the desert. The stream (which, we are told, rises in Heaven Lake) disappears, and we continue our slow ascent.
About noon, we arrive at Heaven Lake, and look for a place to stay at the foot, which is the resort area. We get a room
in a small cottage, and I am happy to note that there are thick quilts on the beds.
(3) Standing outside the cottage, we survey our surroundings. Heaven Lake is long, sardine-shaped and fed by
snow melt from a stream at its head. The lake is intense blue, surrounded on all sides by green mountain walls, dotted
with distant steep. At the head of the lake, beyond the delta of the inflowing stream, is a massive snow-capped peak
which dominates the vista; it is part of a series of peaks that culminate, a little out of view, in Mount Bogda itself.
(4) For those who live in the resort, there is a small hall by the shore. We eat here sometimes, and sometimes buy
food from the vendors outside, who sell kabab and naan until the last buses leave. The kababs, cooked on skewers over
charcoal braziers, are particularly good, highly spiced and well done. Horse’s milk is available too from the local Kazakh
herdsmen, but I decline this. I am so affected by the cold that Mr. Cao, the relaxed young man who runs the mess, lends
me a spare pair of trousers, several sizes too large but more than comfortable.
Based on your understanding of the above passage, answer any eight of the questions given below by choosing the
most appropriate option: (1×8=8)
1. One benefit of sitting in the last row of the
bus was that :
(A) the narrator enjoyed bumps.
(B) no one stared at him.
(C) he could see the sunflowers.
(D) he avoided the dullness of the city.
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
2. On reaching the destination the narrator felt
relieved because :
(A) he had got away from the desert.
(B) a difficult journey had come to an end.
(C) he could watch the snow peak.
(D) there were thick quilts on the bed.
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
3. Mount Bogda is compared to ______________.
(A) a horizontal desert surface
(B) a shining prism
(C) a constable landscape
(D) the overcast sky
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
4. Which animal’s milk is available from local
herdsmen?
(A) Horse (B) Cow
(C) Goat (D) Camel
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
5. The narrator was suffering from
______________.
(A) fever (B) cough
(C) cold (D) hunger
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
6. Who helped the narrator to make him
comfortable?
(A) Mr. Cao (B) Herdsmen
(C) People of the resort (D) Bus-driver
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
7. Pick out the word/phrase which means same
as ‘upward movement ’ (Para 2)
(A) overcast (B) quickly
(C) ascent (D) arable
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
8. Find word from the passage which means the
same as ‘sellers’ (Para 4)
(A) vendors (B) herdsmen
(C) skewers (D) braziers
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
9. What does the word ‘pasture’ (Para 2) mean in
the passage?
(A) grassland (B) grass
(C) Sheep walk (D) running area
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
10. Pick the option which is Incorrect.
(A) Heaven Lake lies about 2,000 metres
above sea level, at the foot of one of the
highest snow-peaks.
(B) The narrator wished warmer clothes than
he had brought with him as the bus was
climbing up.
(C) The lake is intense blue, surrounded on all
sides by walls.
(D) The kababs, cooked on skewers over
charcoal braziers, are particularly good,
highly spiced and well done.
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
VIII. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow :
[Delhi, Outside Delhi, All Sets (2017)]
(1) Thackeray reached Kittur along with a small British army force and a few of his officers and their family
members. He thought that the very presence of the British on the outskirts of Kittur would terrorise the rulers and
people of Kittur, and that they would lay down their arms. He was quite confident that he would be able to crush the
revolt in no time. During the afternoon and evening of 20th October, the British soldiers were busy making arrangements
for these camps.
(2) On the 21st morning, Thackeray sent his political assistant to Kittur fort to obtain a written assurance from all
the important officers of Kittur rendering them answerable for the security of the treasury of Kittur. They, accordingly,
met Sardar Gurusiddappa and other officers of Kittur and asked them to comply with the orders of Thackeray. They
did not know that the people were in a defiant mood. The commanders of Kittur dismissed the agent’s orders as no
documents could be signed without sanction from Rani Chennamma.
(3) Thackeray was enraged and sent the commander of the Horse Artillery to capture the commanders of the
Desai’s army. When the Horse Artillery stormed into the fort, Sardar Gurusiddappa, who had kept his men on full alert,
promptly commanded his men to repel and chase them away. The Kittur forces made a bold front and overpowered
the British soldiers. Rani’s soldiers chased them out of the fort, killing a few of them until they retreated to their camps
on the outskirts.
(4) The Kittur soldiers captured about forty persons and brought them to the palace. These included twelve
children and a few women from the British officer’s camp. When they were brought in the presence of the Rani, she
ordered the soldiers to be imprisoned. For the women and children, she had only gentleness, and admonished her
soldiers for taking them into custody. At her orders, these women and children were taken inside the palace safely and
given food and shelter. Rani came down from her throne, patted the children lovingly and told them that no harm
would come to them.
(5) Seeing the noble gesture of the Rani, Thackeray was moved. He thought of trying to persuade her to enter into
an agreement with the British to stop all hostilities in lieu of an inam (prize) of eleven villages. His offer was dismissed
with a gesture of contempt. She had no wish to meet Thackeray. That night she called Sardar Gurusiddappa and other
leading Sardars, and after discussing all the issues came to the conclusion that there was no point in meeting Thackeray
who had come with an army to threaten Kittur into submission to British sovereignty.
Based on your understanding of the above passage, answer any eight of the questions given below by choosing the
most appropriate option: (1×8=8)
1. British women and children came to Kittur
to ______________.
(A) visit Kittur
(B) enjoy life in tents
(C) stay in the palace
(D) give company to the army officers
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
2. Why did Thackeray come to Kittur?
(A) To crush the revolt.
(B) To terrorise the rulers.
(C) To extend helping hand to the people of
Kittur.
(D) To make people and rulers lay down their
arms.
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
3. Based on your understanding of the passage,
choose the correct option as to why Kittur
officials refused to give the desired assurance
to Thackeray?
(1) No documents could be signed without
sanction from Rani Chennamma.
(2) People were in dilemma.
(3) Kittur focus could make a bold front.
(4) People were in a defiant mood.
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 4
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 1 and 4
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
4. What happened to the Horse Artillery?
(A) It couldn’t storm into Sardar
Gurusiddappa.
(B) Kittur forces restrained from bold attack.
(C) When the Horse Artillery stormed into
the fort, men were commanded to chase
them away.
(D) All of these.
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
5. Select the reason/reasons to show that Rani
was a noble queen.
(A) She provided food and shelter to women
and children.
(B) She was very gentle towards them.
(C) She sent them a word of their safety.
(D) All of these.
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
6. How would the British women have felt after
meeting the Rani?
(A) inspired
(B) full of gratitude
(C) relieved and pleased
(D) All of these
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
7. Choose the option that lists the correct
sequence of the process
1. Refusal by Rani to meet Thackeray.
2. Considered pointless to meet him.
3. Thackeray had come with an army.
4. He came with an intention to threaten
Kittur into submission.
(A) 3, 4, 2, 1 (B) 1, 3, 4, 2
(C) 3, 1, 4, 2 (D) 4, 3, 1, 2
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
8. Which of these words convey the meaning of
‘captured’? (para 3)
(A) to let off (B) to imprison
(C) to free (D) to throw
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
9. Which of the following sentences convey the
meaning of ‘issues’ in the same manner as it
is used in the above passage (para 5)?
(A) She is expecting an issue.
(B) Last night, she issued a statement,
denying the allegations.
(C) Staff will be issued new uniforms.
(D) All are free to express their views on
political issues.
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
10. Why did Rani admonish soldiers?
(A) Because they had killed innocent
civilians.
(B) Because they had kept children and
women in custody.
(C) Because the soldiers had not kept the
prisoners starved.
(D) Because the soldiers had badly beaten the
children and woman.
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
IX. Read the passage given below:
(1) Maharana Pratap ruled Mewar only for 25 years. However, he accomplished so much grandeur during his
reign that his glory surpassed the boundaries of countries and time, turning him into an immortal personality. He along
with his kingdom became a synonym for valour, sacrifice and patriotism. Mewar, had been a leading Rajput kingdom
even before Maharana Pratap occupied the throne. Kings of Mewar, with the cooperation of their nobles and subjects,
had established such traditions in the kingdom, which augmented their magnificence despite the hurdles of having a
smaller area under their command and less population. There did come a few thorny occasions when the flag of the
kingdom seemed sliding down. Their flag, once again heaved high in the sky thanks to the gallantry and brilliance of
the people of Mewar.
(2) The destiny of Mewar was good in the sense that barring a few kings, most of the rulers were competent and
patriotic. This glorious tradition of the kingdom almost continued for 1500 years since its establishment, right from the
reign of Bappa Rawal. In fact, only 60 years before Maharana Pratap, Rana Sanga, drove the kingdom to the pinnacle
of fame. His reputation went beyond Rajasthan and reached Delhi. Two generations before him, Rana Kumbha, had
given a new stature to the kingdom through victories and developmental work. During his reign, literature and art
also progressed extraordinarily. Rana himself was inclined towards writing and his works are read with reverence even
today.
(3) The ambience of his kingdom was conducive to the creation of high quality work of art and literature. These
accomplishments, were the outcome of a long-standing tradition sustained by several generations. The life of the
people of Mewar must have been peaceful and prosperous during a long span of time, otherwise, such extraordinary
accomplishment in these fields would not have been possible. This is reflected in their art and literature as well as their
loving nature. They compensate for lack of admirable physique by their firm but pleasant nature. The ambience of
Mewar remains lovely, thanks to the cheerful and liberal character of its people.
(4) One may observe astonishing pieces of workmanship not only in the forts and palaces of Mewar but also in
public utility buildings. Ruins of many structures which are still standing tall in their grandeur are testimony to the fact
that, Mewar was not only the land of the brave but also a seat of art and culture. Amidst aggression and bloodshed,
literature and art flourished and creative pursuits of literature and artists did not suffer. Imagine, how glorious the
period must have been when the Vijaya Stambha which is the sample of our great ancient architecture even today, was
constructed. In the same fort, Kirti Stambha is standing high, reflecting how liberal the then administration was, which
allowed people from other communities and kingdoms to come and carry out construction work. It is useless to indulge
in the debate whether the Vijaya Stambha was constructed first or the Kirti Stambha. The fact is that both the capitals
are standing side by side and reveal, the proximity between the king and the subjects of Mewar.
(5) The cycle of time does not remain the same. Whereas, the reign of Rana Sanga was crucial in raising the
kingdom to the acme of glory, it also proved to be his nemesis. History took a turn. The fortune of Mewar—the land of
the brave, started waning. Rana tried to save the day with his acumen which was running against the stream and the
glorious traditions for some time.
Based on your understanding of the above passage, answer any eight of the questions given below by choosing the
most appropriate option: (1×8=8)
1. Maharana Pratap became immortal because :
(A) he ruled Mewar for 25 years.
(B) he added a lot of grandeur to Mewar.
(C) of his valour, sacrifice and patriotism.
(D) both (B) and (C).
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
2. Difficulties in the way of Mewar were :
(A) lack of cooperation of the nobility.
(B) ancient traditions of the kingdom.
(C) its small area and small population.
(D) the poverty of the subjects.
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
3. During thorny occasions :
(A) the flag of Mewar seemed to be lowered.
(B) the flag of Mewar was hoisted high.
(C) the people of Mewar never showed
gallantry.
(D) most of the rulers heaved a sigh of relief.
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
4. Mewar was lucky because :
(1) all of its rulers were competent.
(2) most of its people were competent.
(3) most of its rulers were competent.
(4) only a few of its people were incompetent.
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 3
(C) 2, 3 & 4 (D) 1, 2 & 4
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
5. Whose reign was crucial as well as proved to
be his nemesis of Mewar?
(A) Maharana Pratap (B) Rana Sanga
(C) Rana Kumbha (D) Bappa Rawal
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
6. Who is the earliest King of Mewar mentioned
in the passage?
(A) Bappa Rawal
(B) Rana Sanga
(C) Rana Kumbha
(D) Maharana Pratap
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
7. What was incorrect about Rana Kumbha’s
contribution to the glory of Mewar?
(A) He had given a new stature to the
kingdom through victories.
(B) He made his kingdom special with
developmental work.
(C) During his reign, literature and art
progressed extraordinary.
(D) He himself was never seen inclined
towards writing.
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
8. Find the word from the passage that means
the same as ‘bravery’ : (para 1)
(A) valour (B) magnificence
(C) grandeur (D) brilliance
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
9. Find the word from the passage that is
opposite in the meaning to ‘surprising’ (para
4)
(A) grandeur (B) astonishing
(C) flourished (D) proximity
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
10. What do the Vijay Stambha and Kirti
Stambha in the same fort signify?
(A) Both Stambhas are symbols of Ancient
Persian Architecture.
(B) Both reveal the closeness between the
king and the people of Mewar.
(C) Both tell the stories of high stature of the
kings.
(D) Both tell the stories of the people who
went and settled there to carry out the
construction work.
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
X. Read the passage given below: [Delhi and Outside Delhi 2015, Modified]
(1) For four days, I walked through the narrow lanes of the old city, enjoying the romance of being in a city where
history still lives—in its cobblestone streets and in its people riding asses, carrying vine leaves and palm as they once
did during the time of Christ.
(2) This is Jerusalem, home to the sacred sites of Christianity, Islam and Judaism. This is the place that houses the
church of the Holy Sepulchre, the place where Jesus was finally laid to rest. This is also the site of Christ’s crucifixion,
burial and resurrection.
(3) Built by the Roman Emperor Constantine, at the site of an earlier temple to Aphrodite, it is the most venerated
Christian shrine in the world. And justifiably so. Here, within the church, are the last five stations of the cross; the 10th
station where Jesus was stripped of his clothes, the 11th, where he was nailed to the cross, the 12th, where he died on
the cross, the 13th, where the body was removed from the cross, and the 14th, his tomb.
(4) For all this weighty tradition, the approach and entrance to the church is nondescript. You have to ask for
directions. Even to the devout Christian pilgrims walking along the Via Dolorosa—The Way of Sorrows—first nine
stations look clueless. Then a courtyard appears, hemmed in by other buildings and a doorway to one side. This leads
to a vast area of huge stone architecture.
(5) Immediately inside the entrance is your first stop. It’s the stone of anointing : this is the place, according to
Greek tradition, where Christ was removed from the cross. The Roman Catholics, however, believe it to be the spot
where Jesus’ body was prepared for burial by Joseph.
(6) What happened next? Jesus was buried. He was taken to a place outside the city of Jerusalem where other
graves existed and there, he was buried in a cave. However, all is long gone, destroyed by continued attacks and
rebuilding; what remains is the massive—and impressive—Rotunda (a round building with a dome) that Emperor
Constantine built. Under this, and right in the centre of the Rotunda, is the structure that contains the Holy Sepulchre.
(7) ‘How do you know that this is Jesus’ tomb ?’ I asked one of the pilgrims standing next to me. He was clueless,
more interested, like the rest of them, in the novelty of it and in photographing it, than in its history or tradition.
(8) At the start of the first century, the place was a disused quarry outside the city walls. According to the gospels,
Jesus’ crucifixion occurred ‘at a place outside the city walls with graves nearby ’. Archaeologists have discovered tombs
from that era, so the site is compatible with the biblical period.
(9) The structure at the site is a marble tomb built over the original burial chamber. It has two rooms, and you
enter four at a time into the first of these, the Chapel of the Angel. Here, the Angel is supposed to have sat on a stone to
recount Christ’s resurrection. A low door made of white marble, partly worn away by pilgrims’ hands, leads to a smaller
chamber inside. This is the ‘room of the tomb’, the place where Jesus was buried.
(10) We entered in a single file. On my right was a large marble slab that covered the original rock bench on which
the body of Jesus was laid. A woman knelt and prayed. Her eyes were wet with tears. She pressed her face against the
slab to hide them, but it only made it worse.
Based on your understanding of the above passage, answer any eight of the questions given below by choosing the
most appropriate option: (1×8=8)
1. How does Jerusalem still retain the charm of
the ancient era?
(A) There are narrow lanes.
(B) Roads are paved with cobblestones.
(C) People can be seen riding assess.
(D) All of the above.
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
2. Holy Sepulchre is sacred to:
(A) Christianity (B) Islam
(C) Judaism (D) All of the above
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
3. Why does one have to constantly ask for
directions to the church?
(A) Its lanes are narrow.
(B) Entrance to the church is nondescript.
(C) People are not tourist-friendly.
(D) Everyone is lost in enjoying the romance
of the place.
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
4. Where was Jesus buried?
(A) In a cave.
(B) At a place outside the city.
(C) In the Holy Sepulchre.
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
5. Where was the body of Jesus laid?
(A) Floor (B) Rock bench
(C) Marble slab (D) Wooden bench
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
6. How many stations were there in the church?
(A) 10 (B) 14
(C) 12 (D) 5
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
7. Christ was crucified at
(A) Jerusalem (B) Tomb
(C) Church (D) Via Dolorosa
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
8. Jesus was nailed to the cross at the
________________.
(A) 11th station (B) 11th station
(C) Aphrodite (D) His tomb
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
9. The courtyard shows ways to
________________.
(A) The way of sorrows
(B) A vast area of huge stone architecture
(C) Neither (A) nor (B)
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
10. Rotunda was built by ________________.
(A) an architect
(B) an emperor
(C) the Roman Catholics
(D) some pilgrims
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
XI. Read the passage given below:
(1) Many of us believe that ‘small’ means ‘insignificant’. We believe that small actions and choices do not have
much impact on our lives. We think that it is only the big things, the big actions and the big decisions that really count.
But when you look at the lives of all great people, you will see that they built their character through small decisions,
small choices and small actions that they performed every day. They transformed their lives through step-by-step or
day-by-day approach. They nurtured and nourished their good habits and chipped away their bad habits, one by one.
It was their small day-to-day decisions that added up to make tremendous difference in the long run. Indeed, in matters
of personal growth and character building, there is no such thing as an overnight success.
(2) Growth always occurs through a sequential series of stages. There is an organic process to growth. When we
look at children growing up, we can see this process at work: the child first learns to crawl, then to stand and walk and
then finally to run. The same is true in the natural world. The soil must first be tilled and then the seed must be sown.
Next, it must be nurtured with enough water and sunlight and only then will it grow into trees laden with ripe fruits.
(3) Gandhi understood this organic process and used this universal law of nature to his benefit. GANDHI GREW
IN SMALL WAYS, in his day-to-day affairs. He did not wake up one day and find himself to be the ‘Mahatma’. In
fact, there was nothing much in his early life that showed signs of greatness. But from his mid-twenties onwards, he
deliberately and consistently attempted to change himself, reformed himself and grew in some small ways every day.
Day by day, hour by hour, he risked failure, experimented and learnt from mistakes. In small as well as large situations,
he took up the responsibility rather than avoiding it.
(4) This is a common factor in the lives of all great people: they exercise their freedoms and choices in small ways
that make great impact on their lives and their environment. Each of their small decisions and actions, add up to have
a profound impact in the long run. By understanding this principle, we can move forward, with confidence, in the
direction of our dreams. Often when our ‘ideal goal’ looks too far from us, we become easily discouraged, disheartened
and pessimistic. However, when we choose to grow in small ways, by taking small steps one at a time, our achievement
becomes easy.
Based on your understanding of the above passage, answer any eight of the questions given below by choosing the
most appropriate option: (1×8=8)
1. The main idea in the first paragraph is that :
(A) big things, big actions and big decisions
make a person great.
(B) small actions and decisions are important
in one’s life.
(C) overnight success is possible for all of us.
(D) personal changes are not important.
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
2. What does the writer mean by saying
‘chipped away at their bad habits’?
(A) Steadily gave up bad habits.
(B) Slowly produced bad habits.
(C) Gradually criticized bad habits.
(D) Did not like bad habits.
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
3. Which of the following statements is true in
the context of the third paragraph ?
(A) Gandhi became great overnight.
(B) Gandhi showed signs of greatness in
childhood itself.
(C) Every day Gandhi made efforts to change
himself in some small ways.
(D) Gandhi never made mistakes.
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
4. What is done by great people to transform
their lives ?
(A) They approach life on a day-to-day basis.
(B) They build character in small ways.
(C) They believe in performing every day.
(D) All of these.
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
5. How can we grow in small ways?
(A) By getting disheartened.
(B) By dreaming little.
(C) By taking small steps one at a time.
(D) None of these.
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
6. How did Gandhiji become ‘Mahatma’?
(A) By risking failure.
(B) By learning from mistakes.
(C) By taking up responsibilities.
(D) All of the above.
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
7. How do small actions help in our lives?
(A) They help in building characters.
(B) They nourish good habits.
(C) They chipped away bad habits.
(D) All of the above.
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
8. What according to the writer is the universal
law of nature?
(A) Everything takes time to grow.
(B) Nothing can change in a day.
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
9. Pick out the word/phrase which is similar in
meaning to ‘purposely’ (Para 3)
(A) intentionally (B) deliberately
(C) in small ways (D) consistently
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
10. Pick the right option in which the word
‘Principle’ has been used in the same way as
in para 4 of the passage.
(A) He was a man of principle and good to his
word.
(B) The ambassador refused on principle to
agree to the terms of the accord.
(C) By one count, rice is the principle source
of calories for about half the planet.
(D) Wilson constructed various forms of
electric wave detector depending on this
same principle.
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
XII. Read the passage given below:
(1) One of the greatest sailing adventures of the past 25 years was the conquest of the Northwest Passage, powered
by sail, human muscle, and determination. In 100 days, over three summers (1986-88), Canadians Jeff Maclnnis and
Mike Beedell accomplished the first wind-powered crossing of the Northwest Passage.
(2) In Jeff Maclnnis’s words...Our third season. We weave our way through the labyrinth of ice, and in the
distance, we hear an unmistakable sound. A mighty bowhead whale is nearby, and its rhythmic breaths fill us with
awe. Finally, we see it relaxed on the surface, its blowhole quivering like a volcanic cone, but it senses our presence and
quickly sounds. We are very disappointed. We had only good intentions-to revel in its beautiful immensity and to feel
its power. Mike thinks how foolish it would be for this mighty beast to put any faith in us. After all, we are members
of the species that had almost sent the bowhead into extinction with our greed for whale oil and bone. It is estimated
that as many as 38,000 bowheads were killed off eastern Baffin Island in the 1800s; today, there are only about 200 left.
(3) We were on the fine edge. Everything that we had learned in the Arctic over the last 90 days was now being
tested. The fascinating and sometimes terrifying wildlife keeps us entertained during our explorations. Bearded harp
and ring seals greet us daily. The profusion of bird life is awesome; at times, we see and smell hundreds of thousands
of thick-billed murres clinging to their cliffside nests. Our charts show that we are on the edge of a huge shoal where
the frigid ocean currents upwelling and mix nutrients that provide a feast for the food chain. At times, these animals
scare the living daylights out of us. They have a knack of sneaking up behind us and then shooting out of the water and
belly flopping for maximum noise and splash. A horrendous splash coming from behind has a heart-stopping effect in
polar bear country.
(4) We have many encounters with the ‘Lords of the Arctic,’ but we are always cautious, observant, and ever so
respectful that we are in their domain. In some regions, the land is totally devoid of life, while in others, the pulse of life
takes our breath away. Such is the paradox of the Arctic; it’s wastelands flow into oasis’ that are found nowhere else on
the face of the earth. Many times, we find ancient signs of Inuit people who lived here, superbly attuned to the land.
We feel great respect for them; this landscape is a challenge at every moment.
(5) We face a 35-mile open water passage across Prince Regent Inlet on Baffin Island that will take us to our
ultimate goal - Pond Inlet on Baffin Bay. The breakers look huge from the water’s edge.
Based on your understanding of the above passage, answer any eight of the questions given below by choosing the
most appropriate option: (1×8=8)
1. The main idea in the first paragraph is that :
(A) big things, big actions and big decisions
make a person great.
(B) small actions and decisions are important
in one’s life.
(C) overnight success is possible for all of us.
(D) personal changes are not important.
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
2. What does the writer mean by saying
‘chipped away at their bad habits’?
(A) Steadily gave up bad habits.
(B) Slowly produced bad habits.
(C) Gradually criticized bad habits.
(D) Did not like bad habits.
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
3. Which of the following statements is true in
the context of the third paragraph ?
(A) Gandhi became great overnight.
(B) Gandhi showed signs of greatness in
childhood itself.
(C) Every day Gandhi made efforts to change
himself in some small ways.
(D) Gandhi never made mistakes.
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
4. What is done by great people to transform
their lives ?
(A) They approach life on a day-to-day basis.
(B) They build character in small ways.
(C) They believe in performing every day.
(D) All of these.
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
5. How can we grow in small ways?
(A) By getting disheartened.
(B) By dreaming little.
(C) By taking small steps one at a time.
(D) None of these.
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
6. How did Gandhiji become ‘Mahatma’?
(A) By risking failure.
(B) By learning from mistakes.
(C) By taking up responsibilities.
(D) All of the above.
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
7. How do small actions help in our lives?
(A) They help in building characters.
(B) They nourish good habits.
(C) They chip away bad habits.
(D) All of the above.
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
8. What according to the writer is the universal
law of nature?
(A) Everything takes time to grow.
(B) Nothing can change in a day.
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
9. Pick out the word/phrase which is similar in
meaning to ‘purposely’ (Para 3)
(A) intentionally (B) deliberately
(C) in small ways (D) consistently
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
10. Pick the right option in which the word
‘Principle’ has been used in the same way as
in para 4 of the passage.
(A) He was a man of principle and good to his
word.
(B) The ambassador refused on principle to
agree to the terms of the accord.
(C) By one count, rice is the principle source
of calories for about half the planet.
(D) Wilson constructed various forms of
electric wave detector depending on this
same principle.
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
XIII. Read the passage given below:
(1) The difference in the ways of thinking and perception in the people of two different generations, which
results in behavioural differences and sometimes, conflict among them is usually called generation gap.
(2) Generation gap is generally seen in the family between parents and their children. It is not only because of the
gap in age but also because of the way parents react to a particular situation. Children, being very young and immature,
do not understand the way of thinking of their parents. In many cases, the parents, even if they are matured, do not
emphasize with the changing values and thinking pattern of the modern world. This creates a communication gap
between the two generations.
(3) Generation gap between parents and children is mostly caused by parents themselves. They do not talk openly
to their children and do not take part in solving their problems. This behaviour gives the impression about parents
being authoritative person, because they only dictate without understanding the problems faced by their children. As
a result, the children become mentally isolated from their parents. Some parents become so busy with their work that
they do not spend quality time with their family, which makes them completely unaware about how their children are
growing, what kind of mentality is being developed in them, and so on. This ultimately creates a gap between them.
They only realize it when it is too late.
(4) Changes in technology have led to the generation gap in this modern world. Children tend to spend most
of their time with their digital devices and are so busy with social media, that they do not discuss their problems with
their parents. The internet provides solutions to most of the worldly problems. So, children, instead of contacting their
own parents, seek the help of internet in case of any problem, thus again reducing the communication, leading to a
generation gap between them.
(5) The generation gap has greatly increased these days because the time is changing fast and people find it
difficult to cope up with this change. To overcome this problem, the parents should show some interest in all matters
of their children and deal with then positively instead of just scolding them and leaving them alone to deal with their
problems. Giving time to the children, having open communication and allowing the child to feel free and not in any
kind of pressure, will eventually reduce the generation gap to a tolerable extent.
Based on your understanding of the above passage, answer any eight of the questions given below by choosing the
most appropriate option: (1×8=8)
1. What causes the gap between the parents
and their children?
(A) Difference in their ways of thinking.
(B) Immaturity on the part of children
against various situations.
(C) Parents not emphasizing with changing
values.
(D) All of these.
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
2. Pick the option(s) that correctly are the cause
of generation gap.
(A) Parents (B) Children
(C) Values (D) Authority
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
3. How do children generally view their
parents?
(A) As dictatorial
(B) As authoritative person
(C) As friend
(D) As a mental support
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
4. With the advancement of technology,
children spend most of their time
_____________.
(A) with their friends
(B) in educational surfing
(C) with digital devices
(D) communicating with parents
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
5. What step(s) should be taken by parents to
bridge the generation gap?
(A) Show interest in their children’s matters.
(B) Have open communication with children.
(C) Allow children to put forth their views.
(D) All of these.
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
6. Most of the parents do not spend
_____________ time with their family.
(A) free (B) quality
(C) weekend (D) leisure
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
7. The generation gap is ______________ with
the change of time.
(A) increasing
(B) decreasing
(C) being coped up
(D) being dealt positively
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
8. What is meant by the word ‘isolated’?
(A) Bound (B) Grown
(C) Separated (D) Unconcerned
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
9. Pick out the word or phrase from the passage
which means the same as ‘engrossed’.
(A) Caused (B) Dictate
(C) Busy (D) Developed
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
10. Giving time to the children, having open
communication and allowing the child to
feel free and not in any kind of pressure, will
eventually reduce the generation gap to a
tolerable extent. Choose the correct option to
replace the underlined word.
(A) at length (B) ultimately
(C) immediately (D) promptly
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
XIV. Read the passage given below : [Modified as per new syllabus]
(1) The art of living is learnt easily by those who are positive and optimistic. From humble and simple people to
great leaders in history, science or literature, we can learn a lot about the art of living, by having a peep into their lives.
The daily routines of these great men not only reveal their different, maybe unique life styles, but also help us learn
certain habits and practices they followed. Here are some; read, enjoy and follow in their footsteps as it suits you.
(2) A private workplace always helps. Jane Austen asked that a certain squeaky hinge should never be oiled so
that she always had a warning whenever someone was approaching the room where she wrote. William Faulkner,
lacking a lock on his study door, detached the doorknob and brought it into the room with him. Mark Twain’s family
knew better than to breach his study door—they would blow a horn to draw him out. Graham Greene went even
further, renting a secret office; only his wife knew the address and the telephone number. After all, everyone of us needs
a workplace where we can work on our creation uninterruptedly. Equally we need our private space too!
(3) A daily walk has always been a source of inspiration. For many artists, a regular stroll was essentially a
creative inspiration. Charles Dickens famously took three hour walks every afternoon, and what he observed on them
fed directly into his writing. Tchaikovsky could make do with a two-hour jaunt but wouldn’t return a moment early;
convinced that doing so would make him ill. Ludwig van Beethoven took lengthy strolls after lunch, carrying a pencil
and paper with him in case inspiration struck. Nineteenth century composer Erik Satie did the same on his long hikes
from Paris to the working-class suburb where he lived, stopping under street lamps to jot down ideas that came on his
journey; it’s rumored that when those lamps were turned off during the war years, his music declined too. Many great
people had limited social life too. One of Simone de Beauvoir’s close friends puts it this way. ‘There were no receptions,
parties. It was an uncluttered kind of life, a simplicity deliberately constructed so that she could do her work”. To Pablo,
the idea of Sunday was an ‘at home day’.
(4) The routines of these thinkers are difficult. Perhaps it is because they are so unattainable. The very idea that
you can organize your time as you like is out of reach for most of us, so I’ll close with a toast to all those who worked
with difficulties. Like Francine Prose, who began writing when the school bus picked up her children and stopped
when it brought them back; or T. S. Eliot, who found it much easier to write once he had a day job in a bank than he had
as a starving poet and even F. Scott Fitzgerald, whose early books were written in his strict schedule as a young military
officer. Those days were not as interesting as the nights in Paris that came later, but they were much more productive
and no doubt easier on his liver.
(5) Being forced to follow someone else’s routine may irritate, but it makes it easier to stay on the path. Whenever
we break that trail ourselves or take an easy path of least resistance, perhaps what’s most important is that we keep
walking.
Based on your understanding of the above passage, answer any eight of the questions given below by choosing the
most appropriate option: (1×8=8)
1. The passage is about:
(A) how to practice walking.
(B) walking every day
(C) the life of a genius.
(D) what we can learn from the routines of
geniuses.
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
2. The writers in the past:
(A) followed a perfect daily routine.
(B) enjoyed the difficulties of life.
(C) can teach us a lot.
(D) wrote a lot in books.
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
3. In their daily routines :
(A) they had unique life styles.
(B) they read books and enjoyed them.
(C) they did not get any privacy.
(D) they did not mind visitors.
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
4. Some artists resorted to walking as it was :
(A) an exercise.
(B) a creative inspiration.
(C) essential for improving their health.
(D) helpful in interaction with others.
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
5. To Pablo, the idea of Sunday was a/an:
(A) home day
(B) off day
(C) a mall day
(D) friend’s place day
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
6. Beethoven took along with him during his
long walk ______________.
(A) pen and paper
(B) In his secret office
(C) water bottle
(D) pencil and paper
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
7. Composer Erik Satie used to ______________.
(A) compose music after his walk
(B) write his ideas under street lamp
(C) sleep immediately after his walk
(D) have lunch in late evening
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
8. When did F. Scott Fitzgerald write his early
books?
(A) During his regular stroll.
(B) In his secret office.
(C) During his strict schedule.
(D) In his study room.
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
9. Find word from the passage which mean the
same as ‘noisy’ (Para 2)
(A) squeaky (B) detaching
(C) blowing (D) breaching
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
10. Pessimistic : Pessimism :: Humble : ?
(A) Humility (B) Humbility
(C) Humbler (D) Humbling
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
XV. Read the passage given below :
(1) A fisherman, enfeebled with age, could no longer go out to sea, so he began fishing in the river. Every morning
he would go down to the river and sit there fishing the whole day long. In the evening he would sell whatever he had
caught, buy food for himself and go home. It was a hard life for an old man. One hot afternoon while he was trying
to keep awake and bemoaning his fate, a large bird with silvery feathers alighted on a rock near him. It was Kaha, the
heavenly bird. ‘Have you no one to care for you, grandpa?’ asked the bird. ‘Not a soul’. ‘You should not be doing such
work at your age, ‘ said the bird. ‘From now on I will bring you a big fish every evening. You can sell it and live in
comfort’. True to her word, the bird began to drop a large fish at his doorstep every evening. All that the fisherman had
to do was take it to the market and sell it. As big fish were in great demand, he was soon rolling in money. He bought
a cottage near the sea, with a garden around it and engaged a servant to cook for him. His wife had died some years
earlier. He had decided to marry again and began to look for a suitable woman.
(2) One day he heard the royal courtier make an announcement. ‘Our king has news of a great bird called Kaha,’
said the courtier. ‘Whoever can give information about this bird and help catch it, will be rewarded with half the gold in
the royal treasury and half the kingdom !’ The fisherman was sorely tempted by the reward. Half the kingdom would
make him a prince !
(3) ‘Why does the king want the bird ?’ he asked. ‘He has lost his sight,’ explained the courtier. ‘A wise man has
advised him to bathe his eyes with the blood of Kaha. Do you know where can she be found ?’ ‘No…I mean …no, no…’
Torn between greed and his sense of gratitude to the bird, the fisherman could not give a coherent reply. The courtier,
sensing that he knew something about the bird, informed the king. The king had him brought to the palace.
(4) ‘If you have information about the bird, tell me,’ urged the king. ‘I will reward you handsomely and if you
help catch her, I will personally crown you king of half my domain’. ‘I will get the bird for you,’ cried the fisherman,
suddenly making up his mind. ‘But Kaha is strong. I will need help’. The king sent a dozen soldiers with him. That
evening when the bird came with the fish, the fisherman called out to her to wait. ‘You drop the fish and go and I
never get a chance to thank you for all that you’ve done for me,’ he said. ‘Today I have laid out a feast for you inside.
Please alight and come in’. Kaha was reluctant to accept the invitation but the fisherman pleaded so earnestly that
she finally gave in, and alighted. The moment she was on the ground, the fisherman grabbed one of her legs and
shouted to the soldiers hiding in his house to come out. They rushed to his aid, but their combined effort could not
keep Kaha down.
(5) She rose into the air with the fisherman still clinging onto her leg. By the time he realised he was being carried
away, the fisherman was too high in the air to let go. He hung on grimly, and neither he nor Kaha were ever seen again.
Based on your understanding of the above passage, answer any eight of the questions given below by choosing the
most appropriate option: (1×8=8)
Q. 1. Why was the king desperately looking for
Kaha, the bird?
(A) The king wanted a pet bird.
(B) A wise man advised the king to capture
the bird for good luck.
(C) Kaha was the only heavenly bird with
silvery feathers.
(D) The king was blind and required Kaha’s
blood for his eyes.
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
2. Why did the bird volunteer to bring fish for
the old man ?
(A) The old man was inexperienced at fishing.
(B) The bird took pity on the old man and
wanted to help him.
(C) The bird had caught more fish than
required.
(D) The bird wanted to make the old man
rich.
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
3. What led the courtier to sense that the
fisherman might know something about
Kaha ?
(A) The courtier had observed Kaha alight at
the fisherman’s house every evening.
(B) The courtier had seen the fisherman talk
to Kaha.
(C) The fisherman fumbled when asked
about Kaha.
(D) Word went around that the fisherman
was in contact with Kaha.
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
4. Which of the following is not true about
Kaha?
(A) Kaha was a very considerate bird.
(B) The blood of Kaha was precious.
(C) Kaha was a strong bird.
(D) Kaha saved the fisherman from the
King’s wrath.
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
5. Whom did the king send with the fisherman
to catch Kaha?
(A) His son (B) His soldiers
(C) His hunters (D) Other fishermen
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
6. Why did the fisherman stammer when asked
if he knew about the bird?
(A) The fisherman thought he was going to
be punished for leaving the bird.
(B) He was thrilled he would be able to help
the king.
(C) He already knew about the reward that
was being offered.
(D) He was conflicted between the king’s
reward and his gratitude towards the
bird.
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
7. What does the phrase ‘rolling in money’ in
the passage refer to?
(A) To have a large amount of money.
(B) To waste the money.
(C) investing the money.
(D) to have no idea of money, being
possessed.
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
8. The bird________ along with the fisherman
clinging onto her leg.
(A) chirped (B) flew away
(C) captured (D) was caged
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
9. Torn between greed and his sense of
gratitude to the bird, the fisherman could not
give a coherent reply. Which option is the
substitute for the underlined words?
(A) The fisherman could not give consistent
reply.
(B) The fisherman could not give legible
reply.
(C) The fisherman could not give lucid and
logical reply.
(D) The fisherman could not give
comprehensible reply.
Ans. Option (C) is not correct.
10. Pick out the word/phrase from the passage,
which are opposite in meaning to ‘take off’
(Para 1)
(A) go out (B) go down
(C) alight (D) rolling
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
XVI. Read the passage given below:
(1) Suspense was over when my high school results finally came out. But I was upset. I hadn’t done as well as I
had expected. My father tried to console me. ‘Why are you worried? You have done very well my dear’. ‘No, I haven’t,
Baba,’ I protested, controlling my tears, and wondering if I had disappointed him. ‘It doesn’t really matter,’ he assured
me. ‘Do you know what I got when I finished high school ?’ I looked into Baba’s face and waited for the answer to his
own question. ‘You know,’ he told me. ‘I’ve never told you this. I got just a third division. But, look at me, I’ve done quite
well’. Baba got a third division! I was almost in shock, but the thought of my having done a lot better than that made me
realize that I had no reason to complain. I certainly felt better ! ‘Everything is under control !’ said Baba, smiling. That
was his favourite phrase. Posted in Kolkata, my father was then a senior official in the Indian Railway Service, and an
expert in goods traffic operations. He was soon to become a director with the Railway Board. By the time he retired in
1981, he was the General Manager of the Central Railways. By the time Baba passed away in November 2000, his name
had found place in several hearts as well. He was open, easy to know, and full of life. We were extremely close, but I had
so much more to learn about him from many things I came to know after his death.
(2) In September 2000, he was in hospital for treatment of cancer and given just two months to live. When he found
out, his reaction was an extremely rational one. He asked me to fetch files from his cupboard, so that he could explain the
details of my mother’s pension. He also dictated his will from his hospital bed. ‘Everything is under control !’ After Baba’s
death, Satish, our old family retainer, was inconsolable. We tried to cheer him up. ‘Your Baba had scolded me only once
in all these years!’ he cried. Satish pointed to the watch on his left hand. ‘I had been coming late for work and everyone
in the family was complaining about it,’ said Satish. ‘Then, one day, your Baba gave me this watch and told me, ‘now that
you have a watch, you can’t be late’. That was the scolding Satish received. On the fourth day after Baba’s death, my sister
and I had to perform a ceremony. Since several relatives were expected, we decided to order lunch from a caterer in our
locality, who was reputed for his home cooked food. But, when we went to pay the owner, we got a surprise. He refused
to accept any money ! ‘When I wanted to start my catering business, it was your father who lent me money,’ he told us.
It seems Baba never asked for it back. Now, after four or five years, the caterer wanted to repay that debt. Of course, we
made him accept the full payment for the fine food and service. ‘It was Baba’s gift and it ought to remain so,’ I told him.
(3) Some days later, (as we were preparing for the main ceremony) there was yet another piece of information.
Vikram, my brother drove me to the local market. On recognizing our car, the parking assistant, in his twenties, came
running towards us and asked why he had not seen its owner for long. We had to break the news to him and to our
utter surprise, he started crying. We were really surprised by this reaction from a stranger—until the man told us that
Baba used to pay his daughter’s school fees and buy her books. It seems, it was on my father’s advice that he’d even
started sending the child to school. More than three years after Baba’s death, as we were looking into Baba’s personal
things, we came across an old file with Baba’s certificates and I found among them, his high school diploma from 1937,
the one he’d told me about 30 years earlier, about the third division that had made no difference in his life or career. It
had made me see beyond mere marks and first classes as the main road to success. But there was one more fact. Baba
had actually got a first division, a rare achievement in his day. Today, years after his passing, when I think of Baba, I see
a man who was able to sympathise with others very easily and who had touched their lives in some very special way.
Based on your understanding of the above passage, answer any eight of the questions given below by choosing the
most appropriate option: (1×8=8)
1. Why was the narrator in tears when her school
results came out?
(A) She did better than she expected.
(B) She did not do as expected.
(C) Her Baba had not done well.
(D) Her Baba had done better than her.
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
2. On knowing the result, how did the narrator’s
father react?
(A) He scolded her.
(B) He beat her.
(C) He consoled her.
(D) He made fun of her.
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
3. Why did the narrator say that she had nothing
to complain?
(A) She had done better than her father.
(B) She had done as well as her father.
(C) She had topped in her school.
(D) She had not worked hard at all.
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
4. Choose the option that is not correct.
(A) Baba was a senior official in the Indian
Railway Service.
(B) Baba was to become a director with the
Railway Board.
(C) Baba was the General Manager of the
Central Railways.
(D) Baba had got a third division in high
school.
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
5. Which division did Baba actually get?
(A) First (B) Second
(C) Third (D) Failed
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
6. Whose fees the narrator’s father used to pay?
(A) Satish, the caretaker
(B) The caterer’s daughter
(C) The parking assistant’s daughter
(D) The narrator
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
7. What were the favourite words of the
narrator’s father?
(A) All is well.
(B) Don’t worry.
(C) Everything is under control.
(D) It doesn’t really matter.
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
8. Why did he ask to bring files before his
death?
(A) To dictate his will.
(B) To inform about mother’s pension.
(C) both (A) & (B)
(D) neither (A) nor (B)
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
9. Pick the correct option from the given
statements.
(A) The result of the narrator’s father in high
school was better than that of the narrator.
(B) The caterer charge whooping amount for
the food and service extended.
(C) The narrator’s father was kind, open and
vivacious.
(D) Satish was scolded umpteen times by
father of the narrator due to being late.
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
10. Pick out the word from the passage that mean
the same as ‘anxiety’ (Para 1)
(A) suspense (B) worried
(C) shock (D) retired
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
Commonly Made Error
 Most students tend to focus on the passage for longer than required.
 Students read whole passage even for the specific questions.
 Students do not try to anticipate answers and fail to identify the important parts of the passage.
(A) While answering Q (iii), some students just reach at the summary’s conclusion and can’t identify
the right option, i.e. option (a) as given in the paragraph (1).
(B) Here, students are required to look for the author’s father trait that is not true. But some students
overlook the statement and go for wrong option.
(C) While answering vocabulary questions, students should understand the context, rather than
relying on the literate meaning. In Q (x) ‘indicates’ in the old family indicates towards option (a) i.e.
servant.
Answering Tip
 Fix your strategy. It should be question-driven, not passage-driven.
 Before you begin answering, very quickly glance through the questions.
 Try to anticipate the answers and identify the important parts of the passage.
 For the specific questions, draw answer from specific paragraph, not from the entire passage
Type II : Case Based Factual Passages
I. Read the passage and answer the questions given below : [SQP, 2020-2021]
(1) The present generation is well updated with the use of internet and computers. The rapid development
in computer technology and increase in accessibility of the internet for academic purposes has changed the face of
education for everyone associated with it. Let’s look at the data arising out of a recent survey that was done to ascertain
the time spent on utilisation of the computer and internet:
70%
60%
50%
40%
30%
20%
10%
0%
utilization of
computer for
academic
activities
utilization of
computer for
personal use
How often
do you
use mail?
How often
do you use
the internet
for work?
How often
do you use
the internet
for leisure?
everyday 2-3 days a week once a week once a month never
(2) At present, many schools and universities have been implementing internet-based learning, as it supplements
the conventional teaching methods. The internet provides a wide variety of references and information to academics as
well as scientific researchers. Students often turn to it to do their academic assignments and projects.
(3) However, research on Internet is very different from traditional library research, and the differences can cause
problems. The Internet is a tremendous resource, but it must be used carefully and critically.
(4) According to a 2018 Academic Student e-book Experience Survey, conducted by LJ’s research department and
sponsored by EBSCO, when reading for pleasure, almost 74% of respondents said they preferred print books for leisure
whereas, 45 % of respondents chose e-books rather than the printed versions, for research or assignments.
(5) When asked what e-book features make them their favourite for research, the respondents were clear. Having
page numbers to use in citations, topped the list (75%); followed by the ability to resize text to fit a device’s screen (67%);
the ability to bookmark pages, highlight text, or take notes for later reference (60%); downloading the entire e-book
(57%); and allowing content to be transferred between devices (43%) were the varied responses.
Based on your understanding of the above passage, answer any six of the questions given below by choosing the most
appropriate option: (1×6=6)
1. The word ‘tremendous’, as used in paragraph 3, means the same as
(A) expensive (B) renowned (C) Innovative (D) incredible
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
2. Based on the graphical chart in the passage, choose the option that correctly states the depiction of
internet usage for work and for leisure, for once a month.
Work Leisure Work Leisure Work Leisure Work Leisure
(A) Option (1) (B) Option (2) (C) Option (3) (D) Option (4)
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
3. Based on the given graphical representation
of data in the passage, choose the option
that lists the statements that are TRUE with
respect to the usage of email.
1. The everyday usage of email is more
than the everyday usage of computer for
personal use.
2. About 18% people use email once a week.
3. There are a smaller number of email users
using it 2-3 times a week than the ones
using it once a month.
4. Less than 5% of people never use the email.
(A) 1 and 3 (B) 2 and 4
(C) 1 and 2 (D) 3 and 4
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
4. Based on the given graphical chart, pick the
option that lists the area of zero response
from respondents.
(A) Never using the internet for work and
leisure
(B) Daily use of the computer for academic
activities
(C) Writing and receiving emails once a week
(D) Using the internet for personal tasks once
a month
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
5. In the cartoon, the student’s reaction reveals
that he is ______________.
Whaddyamean all my
facts are wrong?!?
I copied
everything
straight off the
internet!!
(A) indignant (B) apologetic
(C) obedient (D) inquisitive
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
6. Which of the following statements is NOT
substantiated by information in paragraph
4?
(A) About three-quarters of the respondents
preferred print books for recreational
reading.
(B) A little less than a 50% of the respondents
voted for e-books for research or
assignments.
(C) More than 50% respondents stated
enjoying both versions of books for
leisure reading.
(D) The survey was intended for
understanding the e-book experience
among students.
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
7. “… but it must be used carefully and
critically.” The idea of being careful and
critical while using the internet, is mainly a
reference to
(A) hardware malfunction.
(B) plagiarism.
(C) troubleshooting.
(D) virus threats.
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
8. Arrange the given e-book features preferred
for research from the least favourite to the
most favourite–
1. downloading the entire e-book
2. choosing page numbers in citations
3. highlighting text
4. resizing text to fit screen
(A) 1, 3, 4, 2 (B) 3, 2, 1, 4
(C) 2, 4, 3, 1 (D) 4, 1, 2, 3
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
Commonly Made Error
This question is basically interesting and easy for the students. Vast majority of candidates appear
familiar with the multiple choice format.
 But sometimes weaker candidates lose marks by offering more than one option as their answer for
each question or not deleting unintended answer clearly enough.
 Attempts which select the distracting detail cannot be credited.
 Some students ignore the information given in the passage and answer according to their own
opinions, based on their own logic. In Q (iii), students are asked to pick the option which is not stated
in the passage. Henceforth, option (2), i.e. Internet based learning will replace face to face education
and option (3), i.e. The resources that the net provides are a danger to the education system should be
opted, represented by option (c).
 In such a case if some may think these options 2 or 3 TRUE, it will make their answer wrong.
 While answering the vocabulary question, the best way is to look for contextual meaning, In Q. (iii)
‘tremendous’ here means ‘very large or great’. Informal meaning of ‘incredible’ is also ‘extremely big’.
So right option is (d), not (a), generally chosen by the majority.
 In Q (vii), the area of zero response is obvious in graphical chart is only for ‘Never using the internet
for work and leisure’. Some students answer such questions hastily with reading the question carefully
hence opt the wrong answer.
 To answer the question (viii) is very easy if the student looks at the expression of the speaker on the
issue of plagiarism (already referred in Q (v)). The speaker is ‘ indignant’ i.e. he got angry, being
accused of doing something he didn’t like and didn’t agree with.
Answering Tip
 For effective reading, students should try to understand all the important keywords, visual inputs and
focus on them.
 It will not only give you an idea about the passage but also help you to opt right answers.
 Don’t make answers and assumptions that are not included within the passage. Just rely on whatever
information is given in the passage to answer the questions.
 Don’t jump into conclusion while opting for the required answer.
 While attempting vocabulary questions, try not to get frustrated and tensed just because you don’t
know its meaning. Concentrate on its usage, see how it is used in the context, instead of its dictionary
meaning.
 Before answering the question based on visual input, i.e. statistics, data, pie chart etc. re-study those
inputs diligently to come to accurate conclusion. Since such informational graphics are generally not
particularly complex or time consuming interpret the related questions carefully.
 Finally, read every answer choice before making a hasty conclusion on your own.
II. Read the passage given below:
(1) Andy Dehart is a shark expert and TV presenter who lives in the United States of America. He has had a
lifelong interest in sharks and is always trying to look for ways to educate the public about them. Many people think
that sharks have little or no intelligence, but Andy points out that recent studies have shown that many shark species
possess powerful problem-solving abilities and social skills. “Sharks do not want to attack humans,” he asserts. “There is
no shark species that eats humans as part of its regular diet. In most shark attack cases, sharks leave after realising that
it has mistakenly bitten a human and not its intended prey.”
(2) In Andy’s opinion, all shark fishing should be stopped until the shark populations have had time to grow
again. We then need to do a better job of managing the fishing of sharks. However, even if the direct fishing of sharks is
stopped, many will still be killed when they are caught up in the nets of boats fishing for other species of fish.
(3) When Andy was a boy, his father worked for a national oceanic organisation, and Andy travelled with him all
over the Caribbean. He grew up by the coast and he has been connected with the sea for as long as he can remember.
He also lived near one of the best aquariums in America. Andy then went on to build a career working with sharks in
an aquarium environment. More recently, he has been involved with television and the making of programmes about
the sharks.
(4) Andy and his wife had their first child two years ago. They were amused and amazed to see what extent their
work with animals has proved to be useful in bringing up their daughter. They know how to observe her behaviour
and teach her how to do things by rewarding her.
(5) Andy loves sharks and is very passionate about their survival and protection. He feels extremely lucky to have
had opportunities working at the National Aquarium and the television station which presents the Nature Channel.
He never wastes a moment in either place that could be spent educating people about sharks. He does admit that it is
probably not possible for everyone to love sharks as he does. However, he does hope to persuade people personally
or through the media to respect sharks and the critical role they play in our environment. His main objective is to keep
spreading awareness that sharks are not dangerous man-eaters but essential creatures in our oceans, as they provide
ecological balance and help to control other species.
Based on your understanding of the above passage, answer any six of the questions given below by choosing the most
appropriate option: (1×6=6)
1. How can it be proved that many shark
species are intelligent?
(A) Their problem solving and social skills
(B) Their social skills
(C) Eating humans and their immediate
realization
(D) Their oceanic organisation
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
2. Why does Andy believe that sharks only
attack humans by mistake?
(A) They don’t eat humans as a part of their
diet.
(B) They leave after realising that it has
mistakenly bit humans.
(C) Human is not its intended prey.
(D) All of these
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
3. How did Andy’s work help him when
bringing up his daughter?
(A) They knew how to teach her things by
rewarding her.
(B) They taught her by reprimanding her.
(C) They taught her to observe behaviour of
others.
(D) Connection of animals to the daughter’s
keenness.
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
4. According to the graph, how many sharks
were caught in 1990?
(A) 650,000 (B) 700,000
(C) 750,000 (D) 800,000
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
5. How does Andy hope to educate people
about sharks?
(A) Through his work at the National
Aquarium.
(B) Through the media.
(C) Through the Nature Challenge.
(D) All of these.
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
6. In the graph given, over the period of five
decades, how much increase do we find in
the number of sharks caught?
(A) 460,000 (B) 560,000
(C) 260,000 (D) 860,000
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
7. Even after the ascending trend, in which
year the number of sharks caught remained
the same?
(A) 1970 (B) 1975
(C) 1980 (D) 1985
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
8. Realize : Realization :: Grow: ?
(A) Growing (B) Growth
(C) Grown (D) Grew
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
III. Read the passage given below:
(1) A survey was conducted on student preferences with respect to the most popular means of communication
among them. Surprisingly, the students didn’t seem much interested in traditional means of communication. Only 7%
were interested in writing letters to their friends or kins as compared to those who preferred e-mails.
Fax, 10%
Telephone, 27%
Text Message, 23%
E-mail, 17%
Instant
Messenger,
16%
Letter,
7%
(2) However, the chief competition is between users of Instant Messenger and those of Emails. The users of fax
line as a medium of communication are only marginal. There are supporters of text messaging also. Overall, the survey
had a mixed response from the students.
(3) The students informed that out of the choices given in the survey questionnaire, they have indicated the most
preferred option. But, most of the students are of the view that video calling needs to be mentioned in the questionnaire
as it is the most effective and most popular means of communication. Further, voice messages are the second most
preferred means of communication.
Based on your understanding of the above passage, answer any six of the questions given below by choosing the most
appropriate option: (1×6=6)
1. Which means of communication is liked by
more than one-fourth of the students?
(A) Telephone (B) Text message
(C) E-mail (D) Fax
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
2. Which means of communication is liked by
exactly one-tenth of the students?
(A) Letter (B) Fax
(C) E-mail (D) Letters
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
3. How much of the students prefer either of
telephones or text messages as medium of
communication?
(A) Option 1
(B) Option 2
(C) Option 3
(D) Option 4
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
4. What is the overall response of the students
to the survey?
(A) Biased (B) Unbiased
(C) Mixed (D) None of these
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
5. What is the correct order of the medium
of communication in decreasing order of
preference?
(A) Voice message, Text message, Instant
Messenger, Fax
(B) Text message, Instant Messenger, Voice
message, Fax
(C) Instant Messenger, Fax, Voice message,
Text message
(D) Text message, Instant Messenger, Fax,
Voice message
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
6. Pick out the word or phrase from the passage
which means the same as ‘study’ (used in
Para 1).
(A) Survey (B) Popular
(C) Communication (D) Kins
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
7. Pick out the word or phrase from the passage
which means opposite to ‘gradual’ (used in
Para 2).
(A) Chief (B) Instant
(C) Marginal (D) Mixed
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
8. Choose the correct option for Competition : Compete.
(A) Competition - Noun / Compete - Adjective
(B) Competition - Adverb / Compete - Verb
(C) Competition - Noun / Compete - Verb
(D) Competition - Adverb / Compete - Noun
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
IV. Read the passage given below:
(1) Human life changes constantly over time. Mobile phones were previously seen only among few high-class
people and were considered as something lavish. Then slowly, even the average or the common men on the street, like
a cobbler or vegetable vendor, could be seen having a cell-phone. In the world today, even young kids and school going
children are found busily chatting away on their mobile phones. Now kids as young as seven and eight too have started
owning a mobile phone. Welcome to the new age world!
(2) Studies recommend that mobile phones should only be given to children above sixteen years of age. Children
below the age of sixteen should not be given mobile phones since their brain is too sensitive to withstand the effects of
mobile radiation. Since the tissues in the brain and body are still developing, these radiations can cause cell damage.
Due to the absorption of radiation, children can have severe health issues. Although, adults also get affected by these
radiations it will be more severe in children because of increased absorption of these radiation levels. Experts also
believe there is a link between childhood cancer and mobile phone usage among children.
(3) A survey was conducted to get the views of the parents and teachers as to whether the children below sixteen
years of age should be given mobiles or not was conducted. The responses received were formulated into a pie diagram
as under:
Whether students should be given mobiles or not
Yes, no
restrictions, 7%
No, Never, 43%
Yes, but only in
emergency, 20%
Yes, but not
during class
hours, 30%
Based on your understanding of the above passage, answer any six of the questions given below by choosing the most
appropriate option: (1×6=6)
1. What is the minimum age prescribed by the
studies to give mobile phones to children?
(A) Ten (B) Twelve
(C) Fourteen (D) Sixteen
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
2. Which of these diseases is linked to mobile
phone usage?
(A) Childhood obesity
(B) Childhood retardation
(C) Childhood cancer
(D) All of these
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
3. What percentage of parents and teachers are
against giving mobile phones to students in
any situation?
(A) 7% (B) 20%
(C) 30% (D) 43%
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
4. Which of these categories is represented by
this pictorial representation?
(A) Yes, no restrictions
(B) Yes, but not during class hours
(C) Yes, but only in emergency
(D) No, never
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
5. Pick out the word or phrase from the passage
which means the same as ‘extravagant’ (used
in Para 1).
(A) High-class (B) Lavish
(C) Vendor (D) Busily
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
6. Pick the right option:
Statement-1: Mobile phones should be given
to children above sixteen years of age.
Statement-2: The brain of Children below
the age of sixteen is too sensitive to withstand
the effects of mobile radiation.
(A) Statement 1 true AND statement 2 is
false.
(B) Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is
true.
(C) Statement 2 is the reason and statement 1
is the effect.
(D) Both of the statements can not be inferred.
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
7. Pick out the word or phrase from the
passage which means opposite to
‘contracting’ (Para 2).
(A) Recommending (B) Developing
(C) Absorbing (D) Linking
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
8. The word ‘conducted’ used in Para 3 here
means:
(A) Steered (B) Sold
(C) Planned (D) Finalised
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
V. Read the passage given below:
(1) Understanding how hibernators, including ground squirrels, marmots and bears, survive their long winter’s
naps may one day offer solutions for problems such as heart disease, osteoporosis and muscular dystrophy.
(2) Nearly everything about the way an animal’s body works changes when it hibernates and preparations start
from weeks or months in advance. The first order of business is to fatten up.
(3) “Fat is where it’s at for a hibernator,” says Matthew Andrews, a molecular biologist at the University of
Minnesota Duluth who studies 13-lined ground squirrels. “You bring your own lunch with you”. Packing lunch is
necessary because the animals go on the world’s strictest diet during the winter, surviving entirely off their white fat.
“They have their last supper in October; they don’t eat again until March,” Andrews says.
(4) Recent analyses revealed that Scandinavian brown bears spend the summer with plasma 69 cholesterol
levels considered high for humans; those values then increase substantially for hibernation, Frobert and his colleagues
reported. These “very, very fat” bears with high cholesterol also get zero exercise during hibernation. Lolling about
in the den pinches off blood vessels, contributing to sluggish circulation. “That cocktail would not be advisable in
humans,” Frobert says. It’s a recipe for hardened arteries, putting people at risk for heart attacks and strokes.
(5) Even healthy young adult humans can develop fatty streaks in their arteries that make the blood vessels less
flexible, but the bears don’t build up such artery-hardening 69 streaks. “Our bears, they had nothing,” Frobert says. lt’s
not yet clear how the bears keep their arteries flexible, but Fröbert hopes to find some protective molecule that could
stave off hardened arteries in humans as well.
PlasmPlaa sCmhaoClehsotleersotrlo ilnin SSeevveenn BBeeaarrss
600
500
400
300
200
100
0
Hibernation Active
Maximum desirable level for humans
Based on your understanding of the above passage, answer any six of the questions given below by choosing the most
appropriate option: (1×6=6)
1. Study of hibernators are likely to offer
solutions for problems like
(A) Osteoporosis
(B) Heart disease
(C) Muscular dystrophy
(D) All of these
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
2. How do animals survive during winters?
(A) Off their white fat.
(B) Hunting small animals.
(C) Eating plant leaves and fruits.
(D) Eating packed lunch.
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
3. What type of brown bears spend summer
with plasma cholesterol levels?
(A) American (B) Asian
(D) Armenian (D) Scandinavian
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
4. How much exercise is done by animals
during hibernation?
(A) Zero
(B) Less than average
(C) Regular
(D) More than average
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
5. What is the maximum desirable level of
cholesterol for human beings?
(A) 0 (B) 200
(C) 232 (D) 356
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
6. Which statement about the effect of
hibernation on the bears is best supported
by the graph?
(A) Only one of the bears did not experience
an appreciable change in its total plasma
cholesterol level.
(B) Only one of the bears experienced a
significant increase in its total plasma
cholesterol level.
(C) All of the bears achieved the desirable
plasma cholesterol level for humans.
(D) The bear with the lowest total plasma
cholesterol level in its active state had
the highest total plasma cholesterol level
during hibernation.
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
7. What is the range of the cholesterol level as
indicated by the graph?
(A)
220
0
(B)
440
200
(C)
400
200
(D)
540
220
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
8. It’s a recipe for hardened arteries, putting
people at risk for heart attacks and strokes.?
Which recipe is good for humans?
(A) Nutritious Food but no work.
(B) Too much food and less work.
(C) Balanced diet and work.
(D) No food and too much work.
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
VI. Read the passage given below:
(1) Most of us know that smoking causes cancer, lung disease, heart disease, can shorten life by 10 years or more
and can cost a smoker thousands of rupees a year. So, why are people still smoking? The answer, in a word, is addiction.
(2) Smoking is a hard habit to break because tobacco contains the very addictive chemical nicotine. The body and
mind quickly get used to the nicotine in cigarettes. Soon, a person needs to have it just to feel normal.
(3) People start smoking for different reasons. Some think it looks cool. Others start because their family members
or friends smoke. Almost all adult tobacco users started before they were 18 years old. Most never expected to become
addicted.
(4) Many of the chemicals in cigarettes, like nicotine and cyanide, are poisons that can kill in high doses. The body
is smart. It goes on the defence when it’s being poisoned. First time smokers often feel pain or burning in their throat
and lungs, and some even cough vigorously the first few times they try tobacco. Over time, smoking leads to health
problems such as heart disease, stroke, lung damage and many types of cancer — including lung, throat, stomach, and
bladder cancer.
(5) A survey was conducted to collect views of the people whether smoking should be allowed or not in public
places. The results of the responses received have been depicted in the form of pie chart here.
No Restrictions,
28%
Yes, Blanket
Ban, 52%
Other, 20%
Yes, At Shopping
Malls, 15%
Yes, On Roads, 5%
Based on your understanding of the above passage, answer any six of the questions given below by choosing the most
appropriate option: (1×6=6)
1. Which of these can be caused by smoking?
(A) Heart disease (B) Cancer
(C) Lung disease (D) All of these
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
2. What is the basic reason for continuing
smoking even after knowing its harmful
effects?
(A) Looking cool
(B) Keeping pace with the society
(C) Addiction
(D) None of these
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
3. Which of these is defence system that
appears in first time smokers?
(A) Vomiting (B) Burning in lungs
(C) Dizziness (D) All of these
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
4. Which of these types of cancers is likely to be
caused by smoking?
(A) Lung cancer (B) Blood cancer
(C) Breast cancer (D) Bone cancer
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
5. From the given pictorial representation,
choose the option that correctly states the
percentage of persons who are of the view
that smoking should not be allowed on
roads.
(A) Option 1
(B) Option 2
(C) Option 3
(D) Option 4
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
6. From the given pictorial representation,
choose the option that correctly states the
percentage of persons who say that smoking
should have a blanket ban as compared to
those supporting no restrictions on smoking.
(A) Option 1
25%
(B) Option 2
50%
(C) Option 3
100%
(D) Option 4
150%
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
7. ________________ contains an additive
substance called nicotine.
(A) Liquor (B) Coffee
(C) Tobacco (D) Fruit juice
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
8. What is the meaning in which ‘cool’ has been
used in Para 3 of the passage?
(A) Chill (B) Unfriendly
(C) Calm (D) Stylish
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
VII. Read the passage given below:
(1) Royal Bengal Tiger is the largest, fiercest, and powerful member of the Big Cat family in India. Royal Bengal
Tigers, also known as Indian Tiger and Bengal Tiger, constitute a large population of the tiger family in the world. It is
the National animal of India and is found mostly in India, China, Bhutan, Bangladesh, and Burma.
(2) The biological name of this Big Cat is Panthera Tigris, which comes under the Felidae family under Mammalia
category.
(3) No two Bengal tigers look alike! Every Bengal Tigers has a unique stripe pattern. Their colour ranges from
yellow to light orange, with stripes from dark brown to black. Some of the Bengal Tigers are white in colour. The tail is
orange in colour with black rings. Unlike the other White Tigers that have blue eyes, Bengal Tigers have yellow irises.
They live for 10 to 15 years.
(4) Being fierce in nature, Royal Bengal Tigers are not much friendly in nature and live a solitary life, except in
winters when they can be seen in a group of 3 or 4. Bengal tigers are fast runners and good swimmers. Tigers attack their
prey in a stealth mode. They are usually spotted in swamps, mangroves, and grasslands.
(5) Royal Bengal Tigers have very sharp memory; they never forget the faces. Their memory is sharper than
humans and other animals.
(6) We can find the largest population of Royal Bengal Tigers in India. As per the latest tiger census report 2017,
there are 3,786 Royal Bengal Tigers in India. India has more than 75% of the total tiger population in the world. Along
with India, neighbouring countries to India holds a somewhat decent population of Royal Bengal Tiger in the world.
The latest census of the tigers in India and neighbouring countries are shown in the table.
S. No. Name of country Minimum Maximum
1. Bangladesh 300 460
2. Bhutan 80 460
3. China 30 35
4. India 2500 3800
5. Nepal 150 250
(7) To know about the latest tiger population is always government’s concern, as they want to save this majestic
animal from getting extinct. India has lost 97% of its Royal Bengal Tigers population in the last century. The main
reason is Hunting, Poaching, Urbanization, Habitat loss and Illegal Wildlife Trade. Poaching means to illegally trade
the tiger made products like tiger skin, tiger made jewellery, etc. These skin and jewellery are sold for millions in the
international market. Poaching has reduced the number of tigers to just 3,800 from 1,00,000 in the starting of the 20th
century.
Based on your understanding of the above passage, answer any six of the questions given below by choosing the most
appropriate option: (1×6=6)
1. The biological name of Bengal Tiger is
Panthera _____________.
(A) Tiger (B) Tigress
(C) Tigris (D) Tigers
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
2. Pick out the characteristic(s) of Bengal
Tigers.
(A) Fast runners
(B) Attack in stealth mode
(C) Good swimmers
(D) All of these
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
3. When was the latest survey of tigers
conducted according to the passage?
(A) 2010 (B) 2017
(C) 2019 (D) 2020
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
4. The number of tigers in ______________
ranges from 80 to 460.
(A) Bangladesh (B) Bhutan
(C) China (D) Nepal
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
5. From the given pictorial representation,
choose the option that correctly states the
approximate percentage of total tigers in the
world which are found in India.
(A) Option 1
(B) Option 2
(C) Option 3
(D) Option 4
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
6. Which pair of countries has approximately
same number of maximum tigers?
(A) Nepal and Bangladesh
(B) Bhutan and Bangladesh
(C) China and Nepal
(D) Bangladesh and India
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
7. Pick out the option(s) that correctly state the
reason for reduction in the population of the
tigers?
(A) Poaching (B) Epidemic
(C) Climatic changes (D) Soil erosion
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
8. Pick the right word which is similar in
meaning as ‘Solitary’.
(A) Accompanied (B) Lonesome
(C) Sociable (D) Gregarious
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
VIII. Read the passage given below:
(1) Whaling is the hunting of whales for food and oil. Whaling was once conducted around the world by seafaring
nations in pursuit of the giant animals that seemed as limitless as the oceans in which they swam. However, since the
mid-20th century, when whale population began to drop catastrophically, whaling has been conducted on a very limited
scale. It is now the subject of great scrutiny, both by formal regulatory bodies and by non-governmental organizations.
(2) Whaling has been documented in many sources—from Neolithic cave art to present-day annual reports of the
International Whaling Commission. Prehistoric inhabitants of far northern coastal regions, lacking adequate agriculture,
developed successful whaling techniques using Stone Age weapons. By the time the Inuit (Eskimo) of eastern and
western North America were first encountered by Europeans, they had already mastered whale hunting, and many
Inuit methods were used as recently as 1900. For the Inuit, a captured whale supplied food, fuel, and light; sinews
provided cordage, and bones were used for tools and construction. Not until the 20th century, when floating factory
ships came into use, did other civilizations succeed in the same efficient use of the whole carcass. Elsewhere, from the
first intensive hunting of whales in the early 17th century to the early 20th century, little more than blubber and baleen
was used, and the remainder of the animal was discarded. Each successive discovery of new whaling grounds resulted
in the near disappearance of a particular species. The efficiency of modern hunting methods hastened this trend.
(3) International whaling developed in stages that were determined by changing demand, diminishing stocks,
and advancing technology. A lengthy primitive stage eventually led to commercial whaling; new markets and technical
and chemical advances then produced modern whaling, which led to virtual extinction of the quarry and a return to
a primitive stage. The commercial stages were dominated overwhelmingly by Northern Europeans and Americans—
first the Dutch, then the British and Americans, and finally the Norwegians and British. Only at the very end, when
Europeans no longer found the trade profitable, did they surrender the remaining whales to the Russians and Japanese.
(4) The graph below shows number of two common types of whales in Antarctica between 1985 and 2010.
16000
14000
12000
10000
8000
6000
4000
2000
0
Minke Whales
Sei Whales
1985 1990 1995 2000 2005 2010
Antarctic Catch
Based on your understanding of the above passage, answer any six of the questions given below by choosing the most
appropriate option: (1×6=6)
1. Around when did the whale population start
dropping largely?
(A) Beginning of 19th century
(B) Mid 20th century
(C) Early 21st century
(D) Just recently
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
2. What is the earliest documented source of
whaling?
(A) Paleolithic cave art
(B) Mesolithic cave art
(C) Neolithic cave art
(D) Monolithic cave art
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
3. Who are Inuits?
(A) The whales predominantly found in
Antarctica.
(B) The people predominantly found in
Antarctica.
(C) The people living in cold areas of Eastern
and Western North America.
(D) The people living in cold areas of Siberian
desert in Russia.
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
4. Who started the commercial whaling?
(A) Dutch (B) British
(C) Russians (D) Japanese
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
Q. 5 Which of these pictorials represents the
correct relationship between hunting of
Minke whales and Sei whales in 1990?
(A) Option 1
Sei Minke
(B) Option 2
Sei Minke
(C) Option 3
Sei Minke
(D) Option 4
Sei Minke
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
6. Which of these pictorials represents the correct relationship between hunting of Minke whales and
Sei whales in 1995?
(A) Option 1
Sei Minke
(B) Option 2
Sei Minke
(C) Option 3
Sei Minke
(D) Option 4
Sei Minke
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
7. In the year 1985, the difference between the
number of Minke whales hunted and Sei
whales hunted was _________________.
(A) 1000 (B) 15000
(C) 16000 (D) 14000
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
8. The range of the time period of the survey is
(A) A decade
(B) A century
(C) Quarter of a century
(D) Quarter of a decade
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
IX. Read the passage given below:
(1) A new dimension of women in politics emerged in recent years all over the world. More and more women
have now been entering into politics. Conventional politics reflected male concerns and hence women were notably
absent in politics.
(2) Welfare policies had been constructed and reinforced women’s traditional position as wives and mothers.
Women have struggled over issues affecting them, especially their rights to property and vote in the 19th century.
(3) In India, reform movements before and after Independence has helped the women to gain some power in
politics also. After Independence they have achieved an unprecedented political break-through with the reservation of
seats for them in panchayats and other public bodies.
(4) It is heartening to note that Indian women were among the earliest to get their political rights (right to vote)
without any political movement like in The United States and many Western countries. They were among the foremost
to take active part in politics even in Pre-Independence times.
(5) Indian women have a distinction to become UNO Secretary (Vijay Laxmi Pandit), Prime Minister (Indira
Gandhi), Chief Minister (Sucheta Kripalani, Jayalalitha, Uma Bharti, Mayawati and Vasundhara Raje) and even
President (Pratibha Patil).
(6) A recent study was conducted to understand the status of women in politics across the world. The graph
below proves that even in the 21st century, the status of women is not equal to that of men when it comes to occupying
high positions in various occupations.
Woman in National Parliament
(0% by region, both houses combined)
Western countries, 38.1
America, 15.3
Asia, 15.3
Europe (excluding
western countries), 14.1
Pacific, 13.5
Sub-Saharan African, 11
Arab States, 3.6
World, 13.8
45
40
35
30
25
20
15
10
5
0
Based on your understanding of the above passage, answer any six of the questions given below by choosing the most
appropriate option: (1×6=6)
1. What is the theme of the passage?
(A) Women empowerment
(B) Involvement of women in politics
(C) Involvement of women in employment
opportunities
(D) Gender inequality
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
2. ___________ politics reflected male concerns.
(A) Conventional (B) Modern
(C) Neo-modern (D) None of these
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
3. Which traditional positions of women have
been reinforced?
(A) Mother
(B) Wife
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
4. Pick out the right of women which was a
question of struggle in the 19th century.
(A) Right to vote (B) Right to worship
(C) Right to work (D) None of these
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
5. Where have the seats been reserved for the
women after the Independence?
(A) Panchayats (B) Schools
(C) Colleges (D) All of these
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
6. Name the only woman Prime Minister of
India.
(A) Mayawati (B) Indira Gandhi
(C) Uma Bharti (D) Pratibha Patil
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
7. Which prestigious post was held by Vijay
Laxmi Pandit?
(A) Prime Minister of India
(B) President of India
(C) WHO Secretary
(D) UNO Secretary
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
8. Pick the option which is not the correct
meaning of the word ‘Foremost’.
(A) Leading (B) Principal
(C) Top (D) Secondary
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
X. Read the passage given below:
(1) Technology has advanced tremendously and has taken control of our daily lives. Every household has at least
one television set, a laptop or desktop. It is not an uncommon sight to see kids playing with smartphones or tablets
nowadays. We cannot deny how much technology has helped us, but are we exposing ourselves and our children to
too much of it?
(2) There has been much research and plenty of debate among educators, policy-makers, paediatricians and
parents on the benefits and disadvantages of technology over the years. The kids are able to talk to friends and family
who are far away. They enhance your child’s curiosity and encourages him to explore from the safety of your home.
Pushing keys and using the mouse help in fine-tuning your child’s fine motor skills, which enhances their eye-hand
coordination. Studies carried out by independent researchers have found that the use of technologies could support
home learning.
(3) However, technological interactivity can never replace human interaction as current technology cannot replace
the human element of interaction between parent and child. The technology may affect preschoolers’ developing
cognitive and social skills. The extensive use of tablet computers does not encourage innovative learning. It also
increases aggressive responses from playing violent video games. As mentally stimulating as they are, technological
devices do not promote physical stimulation as much as physical activity.
(4) The responses received from parents and teachers during the survey conducted have been depicted in the
form of pie diagram.
Based on your understanding of the above passage, answer any six of the questions given below by choosing the most
appropriate option: (1×6=6)
1. What do kids play on nowadays?
(A) Television (B) Smartphone
(C) Laptop (D) All of these
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
2. What is the most important question faced
by the parents and teachers today?
(A) Has technology helped us?
(B) Has technology advanced tremendously?
(C) Are we over exposing our kids to the
technology?
(D) Do we need to conduct on research on
pros and cons of technology?
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
3. Who among these have participated in the
debate on advantages and disadvantages of
technology for kids?
(A) Kids
(B) Computer vendors
(C) Smartphone dealers
(D) Paediatricians
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
4. Which of these helps in fine tuning the motor
skills of the child?
(A) Pushing keys
(B) Using mouse
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
5. What was the status of the researchers
conducting the studies?
(A) Politically motivated
(B) Education policy makers
(C) Independent
(D) Computer manufacturers
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
6. Which of these statements is correct?
(A) Technological interactivity can never
replace human intervention.
(B) Technological interactivity can surely
replace human intervention.
(C) Technological interactivity is better than
human intervention.
(D) Technological interactivity is miles ahead
of human intervention.
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
7. Which of these skills of preschoolers can be
hampered by over exposure to technology?
(A) Physiological (B) Cognitive
(C) Physical (D) Emotional
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
8. Which is the least selected response from the
following?
(A) Access to many sites
(B) Cause eye skew
(C) Increases knowledge
(D) Reduces outdoor activity
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
XI. Read the passage given below:
(1) Indian Rhinoceros, (Rhinoceros unicornis), also called greater one-horned Rhinoceros, the largest of the three
Asian Rhinoceroses. The Indian Rhinoceros weighs between 1,800 and 2,700 kg. It stands 2 meters high at the shoulder
and is 3.5 meters long. The Indian Rhinoceros is more or less equivalent in size to the White Rhinoceros of Africa and
is distinguishable from the Javan Rhinoceros by its greater size, the presence of a large horn, tubercles on its skin, and
a different arrangement of skin folds.
(2) The Indian Rhinoceros occupies the world’s tallest grasslands, where at the end of the summer monsoon in
October grasses reach 7 meters tall. They are primarily grazers, except during the winter when they consume a larger
proportion of browse. The Indian Rhinoceros fights with its razor-sharp lower outer incisor teeth, not with its horn.
Such teeth, or tusks, can reach 13 cm in length.
(3) The Indian Rhinoceros previously occupied an extensive range across northern India and Nepal from Assam
state in the east to the Indus River valley in the west. Today this species is restricted to about 11 reserves in India
and Nepal. Nearly 2,300 individuals of breeding age remain in the wild, and only one population, that of Kaziranga
National Park in Assam state, contains more than 500 individuals.
(4) The Indian Rhinoceroses’ dung piles, or middens, are of interest not only as places where scent is deposited
and as communication posts but also as sites for the establishment of plants. Indian Rhinoceroses can deposit as much
as 25 kg in a single defecation. The Indian Rhinoceroses’ dung piles support interesting collections of over 25 species of
plants whose seeds are ingested by Rhinoceroses and germinate in the nutrient-rich dung.
(5) A survey was conducted on the population of Rhinoceros unicornis between 1910 to 2005 and the result was
interpreted in the form of a line graph.
3000
2500
2000
1500
1000
500
0
Population - Rhinoceros unicornis
1910
1952
1959
1963
1964
1966
1969
1971
1983
1994
1996
1987
1990
1994
1995
1997
1998
2000
2002
2005
year
Based on your understanding of the above passage, answer any six of the questions given below by choosing the most
appropriate option: (1×6=6)
1. What is the scientific name of the Indian
Rhinoceros?
(A) Rhinoceros Indian
(B) Rhinoceros Unicornis
(C) Rhinoceros Asia
(D) All of these
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
2. What is the weight range of Indian
Rhinoceros?
(A) 1800-2700 kg (B) 2-3.5 meters
(C) 25-50 inches (D) None of these
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
3. Which of these Rhinoceros is equivalent in
size to Indian Rhinoceros?
(A) African White Rhinoceros
(B) Javan Rhinoceros
(C) Asian Rhinoceros
(D) All of these
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
4. Pick the option(s) that state the features used
to distinguish Indian Rhinoceros and Javan
Rhinoceros.
(A) Large horn
(B) Skin tubercles
(C) Skin fold arrangement
(D) All of these
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
5. Which teeth are used by the Indian
Rhinoceros for fighting?
(A) Lower outer incisor
(B) Lower inner canine
(C) Upper outer molars
(D) Upper inner premolars
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
6. Which of these statements is correct?
(A) The Indian Rhinoceros previously
occupied an intensive range across
southern India and Sri Lanka from Tamil
Nadu state in the south to Himachal
Pradesh in the north.
(B) The Indian Rhinoceros previously
occupied an intensive range across
northern India and Nepal from Assam
state in the east to the Indus River valley
in the west.
(C) The Indian Rhinoceros previously
occupied an extensive range across
southern India and Sri Lanka from Tamil
Nadu state in the south to Himachal
Pradesh in the north.
(D) The Indian Rhinoceros previously
occupied an extensive range across
northern India and Nepal from Assam
state in the east to the Indus River valley
in the west.
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
7. Which of these pictorials represent the
change in population of rhinoceros from
1959 to 1963?
(A) Option 1
1959 1963
(B) Option 2
1959 1963
(C) Option 3
1959 1963
(D) Option 4
1959 1963
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
8. Which teeth are used by the Indian Rhinoceros for fighting?
(A) Lower outer incisor
(B) Lower inner canine
(C) Upper outer molars
(D) Upper inner premolars
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
XII. Read the passage given below:
(1) Parents of teenagers or preteens should realize the normal struggles with fads, music and other efforts of
independence occur in every family. Once they know that, they can relax more and worry less about how their children
are “turning out”. Chances are they will be just fine, and the challenging teen will grow up to be a responsible adult.
(2) In the early years of children’s lives, parents are the most important figures in their world. Their approval, love
and support are critical to children. Consequently, much of what children do and say is aimed at maintaining that love
and approval. As children get older and have more contact with people other than their parents, their behaviour and
attitude will be influenced by other people.
(3) When children are young, many parents maintain control over most aspects of their child’s life. These parents
choose their child’s clothes, friends, hobbies and so on. As children grow older, they realize they can never grow into
adults without having control of their lives. Consequently, teens begin to fight for control.
(4) For teens, this struggle for adulthood is terribly risky because they risk losing the most important thing in their
lives — the love of parents. At the same time, parents may feel rejected, hurt and anxious about teens’ abilities to care
for themselves. Their struggle is stressful because everyone cares so greatly about each other.
(5) A common complaint from teens is that parents “want me to be the way they want me to be.” In other words,
many parents want a certain career, appearance or college for their teen. These parents experience varying amounts of
disappointment and sometimes anger because their children fail to live up to the parents’ expectations.
(6) Accepting teens as individuals who will have to make their own decisions about how to be an adult in the
world can be extremely hard to do. But the healthy teen will grow up and do just that. Parents who reject their teen for
failing to follow the parents’ plans or who reject some aspect of their teen’s life may find themselves painfully alienated
from this person who they care about so much.
(7) A survey was conducted where 500 teenagers were asked a question “What is the one thing your parents can
do to make you happier?”. The responses of the teenagers were presented in the form a pie chart.
More
attention
12%
Money
30%
Freedom
20%
Nothing 28
%
Argue less
10%
Based on your understanding of the above passage, answer any six of the questions given below by choosing the most
appropriate option: (1×6=6)
1. What are the normal struggles between
parents and teenagers?
(A) Efforts of independence
(B) Efforts of dependence
(C) Efforts of pre-dependence
(D) Efforts of affection
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
2. What can the parents do when they know
how their children are turning out?
(A) Sing (B) Dance
(C) Clap (D) Relax
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
3. What is the challenging teen likely to grow
up into?
(A) A responsible citizen
(B) A responsible adult
(C) A responsible lawyer
(D) A responsible social worker
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
4. Who are the most important figure in the
world in the early years of children’s lives?
(A) Parents (B) Siblings
(C) Friends (D) Teachers
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
5. Which of these pictorials is the closest
representation of the people saying
‘Nothing’?
(A) Option 1
(B) Option 2
(C) Option 3
(D) Option 4
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
6. Which of these statements is correct?
(A) Teens begin to fight for respect.
(B) Teens begin to fight for trust.
(C) Teens begin to fight for money.
(D) Teens begin to fight for control.
Ans. Option (D) is correct.
7. Why is the struggle for adulthood terrible
risky?
(A) They risk losing the bond of friends.
(B) They risk losing the trust of siblings.
(C) They risk losing the love of parents.
(D) They risk losing the respect for teachers.
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
8. Which word in the passage means same as
‘isolate’ (used in para 6)?
(A) Reject (B) Accept
(C) Alienate (D) Grow
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
nnn
SELF ASSESSMENT TEST-1
Maximum Time: 1 Hr. MM: 28
I. Read the passage given below:
Sherlock Holmes took his bottle from the corner of the mantelpiece and his hypodermic syringe from its neat
morocco case. With his long, white, nervous fingers he adjusted the delicate needle, and rolled back his left shirtcuff.
For some little time his eyes rested thoughtfully upon the sinewy forearm and wrist all dotted and scarred with
innumerable puncture-marks. Finally he thrust the sharp point home, pressed down the tiny piston, and sank back into
the velvet-lined armchair with a long sigh of satisfaction.
Three times a day for many months I had witnessed this performance, but custom had not reconciled my mind to
it. On the contrary, from day to day I had become more irritable at the sight, and my conscience swelled nightly within
me at the thought that I had lacked the courage to protest. Again and again, I had registered a vow that I should deliver
my soul upon the subject, but there was that in the cool, nonchalant air of my companion which made him the last
man with whom one would care to take anything approaching to a liberty. His great powers, his masterly manner, and
the experience which I had of his many extraordinary qualities, all made me diffident and backward in crossing him.
Yet upon that afternoon, whether it was the Beaune which I had taken with my lunch, or the additional
exasperation produced by the extreme deliberation of his manner, I suddenly felt that I could hold out no longer.
“Which is it to-day?” I asked,—“morphine or cocaine?”
He raised his eyes languidly from the old black letter volume which he had opened. “It is cocaine,” he said,—“a
seven-per-cent solution. Would you dare to try it?”
“No, indeed,” I answered, brusquely. —”My Constitution has not got over the Afghan campaign yet. I cannot
afford to throw any extra strain upon it.” He smiled at my vehemence. “Perhaps you are right, Watson,” he said. “I
suppose that its influence is physically a bad one. I find it, however, so transcendently stimulating and clarifying to the
mind that its secondary action is a matter of small moment.”
“But consider!” I said, earnestly. “Count the cost! Your brain may, as you say, be roused and excited, but it is a
pathological and morbid process, which involves increased tissue-change and may at last leave a permanent weakness.
Surely the game is hardly worth the candle. Why should you, for a mere passing pleasure, risk the loss of those great
powers with which you have been endowed? Remember that I speak not only as one comrade to another, but as a
medical man to one for whose Constitution he is to some extent answerable.”
He did not seem offended. “My mind,” he said, “rebels at stagnation. Give me problems, give me work, give me
the most abstruse cryptogram or the most intricate analysis, and I am in my own proper atmosphere. I can dispense
then with artificial stimulants.” Source: The Sign of the Four
On the basis of your reading the above passage answer any eight following questions out of ten by choosing the
correct option. (1×8=8)
1. What could be the cause of “innumerable
puncture marks” on Holmes’ forearm?
(A) He was suffering from a disease.
(B) He had a tattoo on his arm.
(C) He was injecting a drug daily.
(D) Nothing is clearly mentioned.
2. What do you understand about the narrator‘s
response to what he saw for many months?
(A) He was not interested.
(B) He was annoyed
(C) He was pleased
(D) He was confused
3. What can we understand about the
personality of the narrator‘s companion?
(A) He was arousing wonder & respect.
(B) He was easy going.
(C) He was quarrelsome.
(D) He was fun loving
4. Watson refused to take cocaine because:
(A) he did not have money to buy it.
(B) he was not in the best of health.
(C) he was afraid of his companion.
(D) both A & C
5. When Watson refused to take cocaine,
Sherlock Holmes:
(A) accepted his answer.
(B) tried to persuade him.
(C) criticized him.
(D) got angry with him.
6. ‘The game is hardly worth the candle’ means:
(A) Do not play games with a candle.
(B) The risk is more than the pleasure.
(C) I agree with our view.
(D) Cocaine is costlier than a candle.
7. What is the profession of Watson?
(A) writer (B) detective.
(C) engineer (D) doctor.
8. Sherlock Holmes said he could stop taking
cocaine if:
(A) he took a new year resolution.
(B) Watson did not like it.
(C) he had some exciting mental work.
(D) Watson offered to help.
9.
This image symbolically represents a / an:
(A) cardiogram (B) cryptogram
(C) angiogram (D) epigram
10. Match the words in column A with their
meanings in column B given below:
Column-A Column-B
A. Conscience (1) Forceful
expression
B. Vehemence (2) Lack of
confidence
C. Nonchalance (3) Knowing
good and bad
D. Diffidence (4) Cool
indifference
(A) A – 3, B – 1, C – 4, D – 2
(B) A – 2, B – 4, C – 1, D – 3
(C) A – 4, B – 3, C – 2, D – 1
(D) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3, D – 4
II. Read the passage given below:
Emma Raducanu had sprung from nowhere at Wimbledon, defeating a string of higher-ranked players in a
startling run that captivated the nation. Promoted to No. 1 Court – and the front pages – for a fourth-round match
against Ajla Tomljanović of Australia, the 18-years old suffered dizziness and breathing difficulties, and retired. “I think
the whole experience caught up with me,” she said later.
Dr. Claire-Marie Roberts was watching with a pang of recognition. Roberts, 43, was a promising teenage swimmer,
who once qualified for the 100m breaststroke at the 1996 Olympics. But she had done so despite almost crippling
competitive anxiety.
“I‘d be vomiting in the toilets before races with so many self-doubts and ridiculous scenarios playing out in
my mind,” she says. “I‘d worry about letting my dad and coach down, and think everyone was much better than
me. Sometimes I‘d visualize myself with armbands on, struggling even to swim to the end of the pool.” Happily, and
unusually for the time, Roberts had a sports psychologist to turn to for help: “In the early 90s nobody really even knew
what a sports psychologist was.” It was only then that she was able to start managing her anxiety and qualify for Atlanta
with Team Great Britain.
When a Pre-Games injury snuffed out her Olympic dream, Roberts’ experience inspired a job swap. She is now
a sports psychologist at the University of the West of England in Bristol, and learning and development manager at the
Premier League.
Dr. Andrea Furst, a sports psychologist who works with England Rugby and the Australian sailing team, says
the discipline to focus on what needs to be improved is what separates elite athletes and mortals. “Many of the things
that are needed to be elite are not particularly complex, but it‘s the requirement for them to be done day after day that
makes supreme performers,” she says. “One of the best pieces of advice in everyday life would be to pick one thing to
focus on to change and stick at it.”
“The performances we love the most are the ones where we can see huge hearts, deep character and the mastery
of skill at an inspiring level; where we can see ‘humanness‘ – not robotic perfection or emotionless ‘execution‘,”
psychologist Pippa Grange says. “There is something for all of us to take from that.”
When the recent England-Italy Euro final went to penalties, Dr. Geir Jordet, a sports psychologist, grabbed a
notepad. His analysis, covering more than 45 years of shootouts, has revealed that when a team only needs one more
successful penalty to win the match, the player who takes it will score 92% of the time. When a team loses the match by
missing the next penalty (for example, Bukayo Saka‘s turn for England), the player taking that penalty scores only 62%
of the time. “In life, it‘s about considering the positive consequences of what you‘re doing rather than dwelling on the
negative consequences if you mess up,” he says. Source : BBC
On the basis of your reading the above passage answer any eight following questions out of ten by choosing the
correct option. (1×8=8)
1. ‘Emma Raducanu had sprung from nowhere’
means:
(A) A player like her could be found
nowhere.
(B) She was a famous player at that time.
(C) She was an aggressive player.
(D) She was neither famous nor expected to
win
2. Assertion: Emma dropped out of the 4th
round match.
Reason: All of a sudden, she was severely
injured.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are correct and R is not the
correct explanation for A
(C) A is correct, R is not correct
(D) A is false, R is correct
(E) Both A and R are false
3. Assertion: Dr. Claire Roberts was surprised
to see whatever happened to Emma.
Reason: She was able to overcome a similar
situation in her youth.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are correct and R is not the
correct explanation for A
(C) A is correct, R is not correct
(D) Both A and R are false
4. When Dr. Roberts was a young swimmer, she
was worried about:
(i) being injured in the match
(ii) disappointing her father & her coach
(iii) facing much stronger opponents
(iv) being disqualified for some violation
(A) i, ii (B) ii, iii
(C) iii, iv (D) i, iv
5. Back in the 90s:
(A) there were many sports psychologists.
(B) every Olympic team had a sports
psychologist.
(C) sports were not highly competitive.
(D) one was lucky to find a sports
psychologist
6. Assertion: Claire Roberts went on to become
a sports psychologist
Reason: She had won an Olympic gold
medal.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are correct and R is not the
correct explanation for A
(C) A is correct, R is not correct
(D) A is false, R is correct
7. To become a top sports person:
(i) one must possess many complex
skills
(ii) one must have excellent equipment
(iii) one must focus on what needs to be
developed
(iv) the efforts to improve must be consistent
(A) i, ii (B) ii, iii
(C) iii, iv (D) i, iv
8. The most inspiring sports performances are
achieved through:
(i) The spirit to crush the opponent.
(ii) force of character.
(iii) Mechanical perfection
(iv) large-heartedness
(A) i, ii (B) ii, iii
(C) iii, iv (D) i, iv
9. Match the words in the first column with
those in the second column.
Column-A Column- B
A. Crippling (1) To live at a specified
place
B. Elite (2) Causing a severe
difficulty
C. Dwell on (3) Top class or highly
superior
(4) To talk or think
about something
(A) A-4, B-2, C-1 (B) A-2, B-3, C-4
(C) A-3, B-4, C-3 (D) A-1, B-1, C-2
10. Which of the following statements are true
about penalty shoot-outs?
1. Penalty shoot-outs are very common in
international matches.
2. The chances of winning are better when
only goal is required to win.
3. The chances of winning are
comparatively lower when missing
means a loss.
4. Concentrate on positive results & do not
worry about negative consequences.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 2, 3 and 4
III. Read the passage given below:
Of the 197 million square miles making up the surface of the globe, the interconnecting bodies of marine water
cover 71 percent; the Pacific Ocean alone covers half the earth and averages nearly 14000 feet in depth. The continents-
Eurasia, Africa, North America, South America, Australia and Antarctica- are the portions of the continental masses
rising above the sea level. The submerged borders of the continental masses are the continental shelves, beyond which
lie the deep-sea basins.
The oceans attain their greatest depths not in their central parts, but in certain elongated furrows or long narrow
troughs, called deeps. These profound troughs have a peripheral arrangement, notable around the border of the Pacific
and the Indian Oceans. The position of the deeps near the continental masses suggests that the deeps, like the highest
mountains, are of recent origin, since otherwise they would have been filled with wastes from the lands. This suggestion
is strengthened by the fact that the deeps are frequently the sites of world-shaking earthquakes. For example, the ‘tidal
wave’ that in April 1946 caused widespread destruction along Pacific coasts resulted from a strong earthquake on the
floor of the Aleutian Deep.
The topography of the ocean floor is none too well known, since in great areas the available sounding are
hundreds or even thousands of miles apart. However, the floor of the Atlantic is becoming fairly well known as a result
of special surveys since 1920. A broad well-defined ridge- the Mid Atlantic Ridge-runs north and south between Africa
and the two Americas, and numerous other major irregularities diversify the Atlantic floor. Closely spaced soundings
show that many parts of the oceanic floors are as rugged as mountainous regions of the continents. Use of the recently
perfect method of echo sounding is rapidly enlarging our knowledge of submarine topography. During Second World
War great strides were made in mapping submarine surfaces, particularly in many parts of the vast Pacific basin.
The continents stand on the average 2870 feet – slightly more than half a mile above the sea level. North America
averages 2300 feet; Europe averages only 1150 feet and Asia, the highest of the larger continental subdivisions, averages
3200 feet. The highest point on the globe, Mount Everest in the Himalayas is 29000 feet above the sea; and as the greatest
known depth in the sea is over 35000 feet or exceeds 12 miles. The continental masses and the deep-sea basins are relief
features of the first order; the second order. The lands are unendingly subject to a complex of activities summarised
in the term erosion, which first sculpts them in great detail and then tends to reduce them ultimately to sea level. The
modelling of the landscape by weather, running water and the other agents is apparent to the keenly observant eye
and causes thinning people to speculation what must be the final result of the ceaseless wearing down of the lands.
Long before there was a science of Geology, Shakespeare wrote, “the revolution of the times makes mountains level.”
On the basis of your reading the above passage answer any six following questions out of eight by choosing the
correct option. (1×6=6)
1. The revolution of the times as used in the
final sentence means:
(A) the passage of years.
(B) the current rebellion.
(C) the science of Geology.
(D) the action of the ocean floor.
2. The passage contains information, which
would answer which of the following
questions?
(i) What is the highest point in North
America?
(ii) Which continental subdivision is, on the
average, 1150 feet above the sea level?
(iii) How deep is the deepest part of the
ocean?
(iv) Why are the surfaces plain on the land?
(A) i and ii (B) ii and iv
(C) ii and iii (D) iv
3. From the passage, it can be inferred that
earthquakes:
(A) occur only in the peripheral furrows
(B) occur more frequently in newly formed
land or sea formations
(C) are a prime cause of soil erosion
(D) will ultimately ‘make mountains level‘
4. Strong earthquakes in the deeps result in
________.
(A) continental shelves
(B) tidal waves
(C) well defined ridges
(D) deep sea basins
5. Molesting the land, with complex destructive
activities results in- __________.
(A) submergence of land into sea.
(B) erosion.
(C) levelling of land.
(D) none of the above
6. Choose one statement that is true among the following:
(A) The tallest mountain on the earth measures greater than the depth of the deepest “Deep” in the
ocean.
(B) The tallest mountain on the earth measures lesser than the depth of the deepest “Deep” in the
ocean.
(C) The tallest mountain on the earth measures same as the depth of the deepest “Deep” in the
ocean.
(D) All the above statements are false.
7. Which of the following graphs depicts the height of continents above sea levels with regard to
North America, Europe and Asia?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) Image (a) (B) Image (b) (C) Image (c) (D) Image (d)
8. Select the pie diagram which correctly depicts the surface area of A – Marine water other than
Pacific; B- continents and C- Pacific ocean in million square miles.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) Image (a) (B) Image (b) (C) Image (c) (D) Image (d)
IV. Read the passage given below:
Every day, we put our trust in computing technology in the financial networks that drive the global economy,
the aircraft control systems that guide thousands of flights safely to their destinations, the computers that store our
documents at work and at home. Yet most people still do not count on computing the way they rely on electricity or
the telephone. Individuals and businesses alike are concerned about the privacy, security and availability of their data,
about upgrading their hardware, about how new applications might affect their systems. Until these concerns are
addressed, computing‘s potential to enrich our daily lives will not be fully realized.
Right now, we are only scratching the surface of what computing technology can do. Already, networks of smart,
connected devices make it possible for us to do business, communicate, learn and be entertained using everything from
full featured PCs to smart, handheld devices. And in the years ahead, a combination of inexpensive microchips and
smart software will weave computing into almost every part of our lives. The advance of computing technology has
in many ways, tracked the growth of electric power more than a century ago. Manufacturing companies were among
the first to use electricity, mostly to improve the productivity. However, in the home, it remained a novel luxury. Many
people were reluctant to use the new electrical appliances, unsure of their safety and reliability. By the 1930s, however,
technology advanced industry safety initiatives and gradual public acceptance led to a rapid increase in electricity use
in many countries- the technology was still not fully trustworthy, but it was safe and reliable enough.
Today, the developed world takes electricity for granted. For computers to be taken for granted they must always
be available wherever and whenever people need them, they must reliably protect personal information from misuse,
give people control over how their data is used and they must be unfailingly secure. We call this concept ‘Trustworthy
Computing.‘
Making Trustworthy Computing a reality is both an immediate challenge and a long-term research goal.
Trustworthy Computing technology is far more advanced and used in vastly different ways than, it was in the mid-20th
century. Yet the way we build computers and the way we largely design software and services around those computers,
has not really changed much.
On the basis of your reading the above passage answer any six following questions out of eight by choosing the
correct option. (1×6=6)
1. The examples of computing technology that
are put to everyday use do not include:
(A) Financial network that drive the local
economy.
(B) The aircraft control systems that guide
thousands of flights safely.
(C) The computers that store our documents
at work and at home.
(D) None of the above
2. What can possibly follow the last line of the
passage?
(A) Changes that need to be made to make
Trustworthy Computing a reality.
(B) Apologies for the state of affairs and
details of research activities that are on.
(C) The legal hurdles that have, to be
overcome to enable wider connectivity.
(D) none of the above
3. The writer draws an analogy between public
acceptance of computing technology and:
(A) industry initiatives
(B) manufacturing companies
(C) electric power
(D) all of the above
4. The author uses the word ‘weave’ in the
passage to imply:
(A) a smooth blend of technology with our
daily lives.
(B) a combination of inexpensive microchips
and smart phones.
(C) the marvel of easy software.
(D) none of the above
5. Trustworthy Computing does not include:
(A) availability of computers anytime and
anywhere.
(B) securing personal information from
misuse.
(C) controlling usage of others data.
(D) reliably protecting personal information.
6. The word ‘REALIZED’ in the passage, means
the same as:
(A) not wanting (B) accomplished
(C) unwilling (D) trustworthy
7. Which of the following comments, is
applicable to Trustworthy Computing in the
present scenario:
(A) The key goal of Trustworthy Computing
isn’t to make computing so safe and
reliable that people simply take it for
granted.
(B) Trust takes years to build, seconds to
break and forever to repair
(C) Trust comes by earning it and not by
expecting it
(D) The continued increase in deceptive
tactics is striking..... The number of
computers impacted as a result of
deceptive tactics has more than tripled.
8. The most suitable title for the passage would
be:
(A) Internet & Security
(B) Trustworthy Internet
(C) Evolving Technology
(D) Indispensable computer
nnn